You are proving my point for me. Yes, a heterosexual will use contraceptives with the opposite sex. No, a homosexual does not need contraception with a same sex partner. WHY will they use contraception? Or WHY will a homosexual “couple” have sex knowing that their act cannot be ordered toward procreation?
In other words, what are they justifying their contraception with? Or what are they justifying their homosexual, and consequently sterile, sex with? They are justifying it by splitting the unitive and procreative aspects of sex. ** If you ignore the procreative nature of the act, then ANY sex act can be justified.** If you disagree, prove me wrong (regardless of what you actually believe…humor me for a moment) by explaining why I can’t engage in homosexual sex while still trying to defend contraception.
(Oh, and to clarify on this point, it’s the contraceptive mentality and the acceptance of contraceptive use that is key here. Condoms or pills, in and of themselves, can’t do or cause anything. I hope I have not led anyone to believe that this was my argument.)
Show me where it is popularly accepted in places that don’t have wide access to contraception. The stand I am taking has nothing to do with the “existence” of homosexuality. I’m discussing the popular acceptance of homosexual acts. This is the 7th time I’ve clarified this. If you can’t distinguish between the two very different topics, we will be at an impasse.