N
Nonatheist
Guest
l am aware of that
There would have to be a very good reason indeed for either. And I think any reasonable person would consider there to be a difference in each case. Which is the point I think has been skipped over too lightly in this conversation.Nonatheist:
Would you put a third trimester abortion on the same moral level as killing a newborn?Yeah, my bad.
l stand by that, pain is one of the musts of being sentient.
And a newborn only has that, so if you remove pain, following my logic rat would be worth more.
Logically how is that possible because it isn’t evident?l would say that once a being obtains a personhood, temporary states that reduce it don’t affect it, as their personhood is never lost but just temporary suspended.
But you are willing to give value to a sleeping person who is not sentient based on something else.So l think that sentience based approuch is the least arbitrary one
Kind of like “you play with fire you are gonna get burned.” If we are resting the abortion of millions of babies (whether you consider this murder or not) on the logic of “I chose to swim in the strong rapids, it’s not my fault I drowned” then wow, it doesn’t get much lower than that.you can climb a three, but that doesn’t mean that you consented to fall from it.
But there are some religious views that reject the use of any devices that would help prevent you from drowning.Nonatheist:
Kind of like _“you play with fire you are gonna get burned.” _ If we are resting the abortion of millions of babies (whether you consider this murder or not) on the logic of “I chose to swim in the strong rapids, it’s not my fault I drowned” then wow, it doesn’t get much lower than that.you can climb a three, but that doesn’t mean that you consented to fall from it.
The fetus is also in this state.l don’t have any specific argument on this, but my core idea is that sleeping can be excused because of that fact that it’s only a temporary reduction in personhood.
But personhood was lost because they aren’t sentient. The past is irrelevant because it no longer affects the present or future.If personhood existed in the past and will exist in the future, than person would retain that moral value of personhood, as it was never lost to begin with.
The person used to be a fetus too , so why can’t that past apply to them too?No, fetus never had nor experienced a personhood.
The moral status personhood give them isnt lost, because the reduction in personhood is known to be temporary.
Reduction and not even getting personhood is a big difference l thin
Then the past would apply on the human and they are no longer a oerson.Person used to be fetus too, but fetus never used to be a person.
When human was a fetus, they didn’t have personhood.
I meant the human is not a person.Yes. Although when human being gets personhood is mostly arbitrary, it’s always after birth.
Fetus is just one of the stages of human development, but it’s not the stage that has any moral significance under my view.
Because in the past they weren’t a person. I also said that what happens in the past is irrelevant if it doesn’t affect the present or future and you disagreed so logically this ensues.Please clerify, how does the past make someone not a person?