M
MarcoPolo
Guest
I have heard many Protestants readily recognize that when Jesus cried out, “My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?” He was referencing Psalm 22:1 even though Matthew does not say “as it is written” or anything indicating this is what Jesus meant. Even so-called “Protestant” Bibles have cross-references to this.
So why not recognize things likeJames 1:19 Know this, my beloved brethren. Let every man be quick to hear, slow to speak, slow to anger, life.
Sirach 5:11: Be quick to hear, and be deliberate in answering.Or some of the other parallels or paraphrases to the Deuterocanon. Is a NT passage simply not cross-referenced to those books because Protestants don’t consider them inspired anymore?
So why not recognize things likeJames 1:19 Know this, my beloved brethren. Let every man be quick to hear, slow to speak, slow to anger, life.
Sirach 5:11: Be quick to hear, and be deliberate in answering.Or some of the other parallels or paraphrases to the Deuterocanon. Is a NT passage simply not cross-referenced to those books because Protestants don’t consider them inspired anymore?