Deuterocanon references

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I have heard many Protestants readily recognize that when Jesus cried out, “My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?” He was referencing Psalm 22:1 even though Matthew does not say “as it is written” or anything indicating this is what Jesus meant. Even so-called “Protestant” Bibles have cross-references to this.

So why not recognize things likeJames 1:19 Know this, my beloved brethren. Let every man be quick to hear, slow to speak, slow to anger, life.

Sirach 5:11: Be quick to hear, and be deliberate in answering.Or some of the other parallels or paraphrases to the Deuterocanon. Is a NT passage simply not cross-referenced to those books because Protestants don’t consider them inspired anymore?
 
The source you listed really has to reach for some of the references listed. Just a few examples.

1
Matt. 2:16 - Herod’s decree of slaying innocent children was prophesied in Wis. 11:7 - slaying the holy innocents.
Matthew 2:16-18 KJVA Then Herod, when he saw that he was mocked of the wise men, was exceeding wroth, and sent forth, and slew all the children that were in Bethlehem, and in all the coasts thereof, from two years old and under, according to the time which he had diligently enquired of the wise men. (17) Then was fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremy the prophet, saying, (18) In Rama was there a voice heard, lamentation, and weeping, and great mourning, Rachel weeping for her children, and would not be comforted, because they are not.

(Wisdom 11:7 KJVA) For a manifest reproof of that commandment, whereby the infants were slain, thou gavest unto them abundance of water by a means which they hoped not for:

Isn’t it more likely that the reference is to Jermemiah as Matthew says it is?

Jeremiah 31:15 KJVA Thus saith the LORD; A voice was heard in Ramah, lamentation, and bitter weeping; Rahel weeping for her children refused to be comforted for her children, because they were not.

2
Matt. 24:15 - the “desolating sacrilege” Jesus refers to is also taken from 1 Macc. 1:54 and 2 Macc. 8:17.
Matthew 24:15 KJVA When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand:)

(1 Maccabees 1:54 KJVA) Now the fifteenth day of the month Casleu, in the hundred forty and fifth year, they set up the abomination of desolation upon the altar, and builded idol altars throughout the cities of Juda on every side;

(2 Maccabees 8:17 KJVA) And to set before their eyes the injury that they had unjustly done to the holy place, and the cruel handling of the city, whereof they made a mockery, and also the taking away of the government of their forefathers:

Jesus is speaking of something yet to come, not something past. Isn’t it more likely that He is referring to Daniel, like He says He is?

Daniel 9:27 KJVA And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.
Mark 9:48 - description of hell where their worm does not die and the fire is not quenched references Judith 16:17.
Mark 9:48 KJVA Where their worm dieth not, and the fire is not quenched.

(Judith 16:17 KJVA) **Woe to the nations that rise up against my kindred! the Lord Almighty will take vengeance of them in the day of judgment, in putting fire and worms in their flesh; and they shall feel them, and weep for ever.
**

Isn’t a passage from the earlier Book of Isaiah closer? And Isaiah was written before Judith.

Isaiah 66:24 KJVA And they shall go forth, and look upon the carcases of the men that have transgressed against me: for their worm shall not die, neither shall their fire be quenched; and they shall be an abhorring unto all flesh.

4
Exodus 23:7 - do not slay the innocent and righteous - Dan. 13:53 - do not put to death an innocent and righteous person.
1 Sam. 28:7-20 – the intercessory mediation of deceased Samuel for Saul follows Sirach 46:20.
2 Kings 2:1-13 – Elijah being taken up into heaven follows Sirach 48:9.
Exodus was written before Daniel, 1 Samuel was written before Sirach and 2 Kings was written before Sirach. Is it really being suggested that the earlier writer was referencing something that hadn’t even been wriiten yet?

These are just a few examples.
 
That’s all fine, but I don’t necessarily agree with all your “this is a closer comparison” analysis…but you are not addressing the verses that only seem to apply to the Deuterocanons. Even so, if there is a reference paralleled in both proto and deuterocanon, do we automatically reject the Deuterocanonical reference? Why?
 
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