M
melekali
Guest
Matthew quite possibly could have been written in Hebrew or Aramaic.And obv no NT
Matthew quite possibly could have been written in Hebrew or Aramaic.And obv no NT
These are the same people who reject the idea of a suffering Messiah? No Jewish rabbi ever had the authority to claim what was inspired and what was not. In fact there is some even today who say that the Jewish scriptures are not closed but only the Messiah will close them when he comes.There is a difference between Christian LXX and Jewish LXX, talk to any rabbi about it sometime.
Interestingly, Jude refers to the non-caninical, non-inspired book of Enoch in his letter, which itself is inspired (Jude 1:14-16).COOL!!
I bought a facsimile of the original 1611 King James and it has 14. But I guess they couldn’t prove those writings were inspired by God so eventually they were removed. But what I find very interesting is that in the Old Testament writings that they believed were inspired by God, they refer to other books that are not in the Bible.
For example Joshua 10:13
And the sun stood still, and the moon stayed, until the people had avenged themselves upon their enemies. [Is] not this written in the book of Jasher?
Who is Jasher? That book is not in the Apocrypha either.
I’m not questioning the canonicity of Sirach but your logic here is flawed. I assume - and I apologize in advance if I am wrong - that you mean that this shows that it was accepted by Hebrew/Aramaic-speaking Jews. However consistency would require you to apply this same logic to those works found at Qumran that are not in anyone’s canon such as the “War of the Sons of Light Against the Sons of Darkness.”The discovery of three partial copies of Sirach among the dead sea scrolls is a rather thorny issue for those who wish to exclude the book.
Basically, the discovery has caused some second guessing on the part of the “apocryphers” (is that a word?) as to its summary exclusion from the reformer’s bible. If I’m not mistaken, there are fragments of Hebrew copies in addition to the Greek, which raises the question of pre- or extra-Septuagint use. The use of any book outside of the Pentateuch is not universal even in Judaism. Going further, the requirement for Judaic acceptance as a determinant of Christian Canonicity appears ludicrous to me, especially in the then-nascent Christian era, when there were plentiful motives for the various Jewish authorities to reject any writing of potential Christian application. There was no agreement on the Jewish canon among even the Jews who were contemporaneous to Sirach’s composition.I’m not questioning the canonicity of Sirach but your logic here is flawed. I assume - and I apologize in advance if I am wrong - that you mean that this shows that it was accepted by Hebrew/Aramaic-speaking Jews. However consistency would require you to apply this same logic to those works found at Qumran that are not in anyone’s canon such as the “War of the Sons of Light Against the Sons of Darkness.”
I see you point. Thanks for the clarification.Basically, the discovery has caused some second guessing on the part of the “apocryphers” (to coin a clumsy phrase) as to its canonicity. If I’m not mistaken, there are fragments of Hebrew copies in addition to the Greek, which raises the question of pre- or extra-Septuagint use. The use of any book outside of the Pentateuch is not universal even in Judaism. Going further, the requirement for Judaic acceptance as a determinant of Christian Canonicity appears ludicrous to me, especially in the then-nascent Christian era, when there were plentiful motives for the various Jewish authorities to reject any writing of potential Christian application. There was no agreement on the Jewish canon among even the Jews who were contemporaneous to Sirach’s composition.
Bottom line is that the Church has always used it, was lead to examine it and declared it inspired. Some 1,700 years after its composition, a rebellious, agenda-driven individual, on his own authority (or lack thereof), called it into question. To Catholics and Orthodox, there has never been a question.
Here is some typologies of the Deuterocanonical scripture:If you are using the term apocrypha in the Protestant sense, yes. If you are using it in the Catholic sense, no. What the Catholics call the apocrypha, Protestants call the pseudopigrapha.