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Part 3: From Jerome to the Reformation, by William Webster
christiantruth.com/Apocrypha3.html
From the above article, the author states:
“The overall practice of the Western Church with respect to the canon from the time of Jerome (early fifth century) until the Reformation was to follow the judgment of Jerome. The Apocryphal books were accorded a deuterocanonical status, but were not regarded as canonical in the strict sense. That is, they were not accepted as authoritative for the establishing of doctrine but were used for the purpose of edification. Thus, the Church retained the distinctions established by Jerome, Rufinus and Athanasius of ecclesiastical and canonical books.”
Why appeal to the “authority” of Jerome (and further along in the article appeal to the “authority” of other Catholics) and ignore the Church councils? The Councils of Carthage and Hippo were local North African Church councils in union with and under the authority of the Bishop of Rome, so they were authoritative. The Council of Florence was an ecumenical council binding on the whole Church. Why are the decisions of these councils subordinate to the opinion of Jerome and other Catholics he mentions? Does the author appeal to Jerome’s “authority” when Jerome writes about the perpetual virginity of Mary? I doubt it.
Also, keep in mind that Jerome did include the 7 deuterocanonical books in his Vulgate translation of the Bible, and he did come to accept these 7 books as canonical. You can read for yourself Jerome’s Vulgate Prologues at this website:
Bombaxo (by Kevin P Edgecomb, an Eastern Orthodox Christian)
bombaxo.com/blog/?cat=6
Jerome discusses the deuterocanonical books in the following Prologues:
Helmeted Introduction to Kings
Book of Judith
Book of Tobias
Books of Solomon
Book of Esther
Book of Daniel
christiantruth.com/Apocrypha3.html
From the above article, the author states:
“The overall practice of the Western Church with respect to the canon from the time of Jerome (early fifth century) until the Reformation was to follow the judgment of Jerome. The Apocryphal books were accorded a deuterocanonical status, but were not regarded as canonical in the strict sense. That is, they were not accepted as authoritative for the establishing of doctrine but were used for the purpose of edification. Thus, the Church retained the distinctions established by Jerome, Rufinus and Athanasius of ecclesiastical and canonical books.”
Why appeal to the “authority” of Jerome (and further along in the article appeal to the “authority” of other Catholics) and ignore the Church councils? The Councils of Carthage and Hippo were local North African Church councils in union with and under the authority of the Bishop of Rome, so they were authoritative. The Council of Florence was an ecumenical council binding on the whole Church. Why are the decisions of these councils subordinate to the opinion of Jerome and other Catholics he mentions? Does the author appeal to Jerome’s “authority” when Jerome writes about the perpetual virginity of Mary? I doubt it.
Also, keep in mind that Jerome did include the 7 deuterocanonical books in his Vulgate translation of the Bible, and he did come to accept these 7 books as canonical. You can read for yourself Jerome’s Vulgate Prologues at this website:
Bombaxo (by Kevin P Edgecomb, an Eastern Orthodox Christian)
bombaxo.com/blog/?cat=6
Jerome discusses the deuterocanonical books in the following Prologues:
Helmeted Introduction to Kings
Book of Judith
Book of Tobias
Books of Solomon
Book of Esther
Book of Daniel