Diabolical drivel from dawkins?

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You apparently claim that it is conscious thought that influences brain states, rather than vice versa. What, then are these things - consciousness and thought - such that they have influence over the biochemical entity that is the human brain, as opposed to the alternative hypothesis - that thought and consciousness are what we experience when our brains respond to stimuli in the physical world, including stimuli from the rest of our bodies?
It is one thing to say that we think in correlation with physical processes; and its an entirely different thing all together to say that our thoughts are caused by physical processes. The latter does not make sense of freewill or the intellectual consistency of human communication. In fact it makes freewill impossible. It does not matter how we are to understand intelligence if it is not caused by physics. If everything is merely the inevitable outcome of chance and physical processes then it does not make rational sense of the coherent meaning in human language and literature. It does not make sense that this discussion is taking place coherently if at the root of it is the mindless expression of physical processes and blind chance.

To say that a mindless object can be the sufficient composite of a mind simply because we perceive ourselves as having physical parts, is really to speak of a square-triangle hiding behind the fallacy of composition. It is purely a circular argument.

You might have well have said “i can only see physical things therefore only physical things exist and no inference to the contrary is going to change my mind!
 
Do you really believe thoughts are produced by the brain?

It is a self-destructive hypothesis:
  1. If thoughts are produced** by **the brain thoughts are caused by physical events
  2. If thoughts are caused by physical events thoughts are beyond our control
  3. If thoughts are beyond our control thoughts do not have a rational origin
  4. If thoughts do not have a rational origin thoughts are far more likely to be false
  5. If thoughts are far more likely to be false the thought “Thoughts are produced by the brain” is far more likely to be false
  6. Therefore it is far more likely that thoughts are not produced by the brain but communicated by the brain
  7. Since physical objects lack insight the brain lacks insight
  8. Since the brain lacks insight it lacks insight into anything
  9. We **infer **that our brain exists but we have **direct insight **into our mental activity
  10. Therefore insight does not come from the brain but the mind
So where would I find the mind?
 
It is one thing to say that we think in correlation with physical processes; and its an entirely different thing all together to say that our thoughts are caused by physical processes.
Then what are they caused by? It’s really interesting that there seems to be such reluctance - among those who subscribe to belief in immaterial souls - to acknowledge their belief that thoughts and consciousness are the sole province of said souls. It’s obvious from neurological experiments that there is a direct relationship between thought and brain activity - although this doesn’t necessarily mean brain activity is the cause of thought, there is no other detectable entity we have discovered that is the actual origin of thought.
The latter does not make sense of freewill or the intellectual consistency of human communication. In fact it makes freewill impossible.
That is a matter still open to debate, and subject to what we actually define as free will. Contra-causal free will is something that no-one would believe in, if they actually thought about it and considered the implications. The fact that the brains which largely operate our bodies have at least some influence over our actions is sufficient to allow for freedom of action and personal responsibility, even if this is not the same as saying we could have chosen to do anything at all in given circumstances. It makes absolutely no sense to say, “My brain made me do it, therefore I am not responsible.” As for consistency of communication, how else do you expect our brains to operate other than via patterns of action?
To say that a mindless object can be the sufficient composite of a mind simply because we perceive ourselves as having physical parts, is really to speak of a square-triangle hiding behind the fallacy of composition. It is purely a circular argument.
But we, as humans, are demonstrably not ‘mindless objects’ - even if our minds are effected by our brains.
You might have well have said “i can only see physical things therefore only physical things exist and no inference to the contrary is going to change my mind!
But I can’t see all physical things that demonstrably exist! I can’t see atoms, for example; nor can I ‘see’ gravity. Perception is much broader than mere visibility. For something to perceptibly exist, it must affect reality as we perceive it - there is nothing non-physical that we have yet been able to identify that has such an effect upon our perceptions.
 
Do you really believe thoughts are
  1. The question “Where would I find the mind?” is based on the assumption that everything is tangible and has a physical location.
  2. Where are truth, goodness, freedom, justice, purpose and love?
  3. The mind transcends matter and is not restricted to any physical location.
  4. Intangible realities are far more fundamental and significant than physical reality.
  5. Material objects are unaware that anything exists!
 
  1. The question “Where would I find the mind?” is based on the assumption that everything is tangible and has a physical location.
Not really - not everything physical is tangible in the sense of our being able to hold and delimit it. We can’t hold the wind, nor can we hold gravity, nor can we see or knowingly touch atoms; yet these are undeniably physical phenomena. You are the one claiming a direct influence of an immaterial mind upon a physical brain - how would you demonstrate that this is the case?
  1. Where are truth, goodness, freedom, justice, purpose and love?
In the relationship between conscious beings and their environment - where else should they be?
  1. The mind transcends matter and is not restricted to any physical location.
So, my mind can operate from the chair in which I am sitting? From your mind, even? This claim requires substantiation.
  1. Intangible realities are far more fundamental and significant than physical reality.
Are they? How so? How do we discern intangible realities? Is this different from our discernment of physical realities?
  1. Material objects are unaware that anything exists!
Again, whence this claim when we ourselves are material objects?
 
It’s obvious from neurological experiments that there is a direct relationship between thought and brain activity - although this doesn’t necessarily mean brain activity is the cause of thought, there is no other detectable entity we have discovered that is the actual origin of thought.
Another circular assumption. The assumption being that if we cannot detect a thing as physical then it does not exist. Physics is either the cause of thought or it is not.
That is a matter still open to debate, and subject to what we actually define as free will.
Well you can keep debating it while the rest of us face reality. We all know full well what we mean by freewill. I am sure that every-time that you go to type a new post you do so with the belief that this is your own free volition at work and not something that is determined by a history of blind processes. Freewill either exists or it does not. If it does, then physics alone is not a sufficient basis for explaining its existence or activity.
Contra-causal free will is something that no-one would believe in, if they actually thought about it and considered the implications. The fact that the brains which largely operate our bodies have at least some influence over our actions is sufficient to allow for freedom of action and personal responsibility, even if this is not the same as saying we could have chosen to do anything at all in given circumstances. It makes absolutely no sense to say, “My brain made me do it, therefore I am not responsible.” As for consistency of communication, how else do you expect our brains to operate other than via patterns of action?
Other than the fact that you making a straw-man of freewill, If your thoughts are the inevitable some total of physical events alone, then the idea of responsibility becomes meaningless. The idea that you can in some way have control over the same physical events of which your thoughts are a direct product contradicts metaphysical naturalism, since it would require you to transcend physical processes in some way; otherwise you are just an inevitable outcome of physical laws, having no control over any effect.
But we, as humans, are demonstrably not ‘mindless objects’
Not by science alone we are not. Science deals with natural processes.

.
 
  1. The question “Where would I find the mind?” is based on the assumption that everything is tangible and has a physical location.
To be precise, physicalism is the theory that everything has a **physical origin **- in spite of the fact that physical objects are not self-evidently the sole reality nor do they explain themselves.
You are the one claiming a direct influence of an immaterial mind upon a physical brain - how would you demonstrate that this is the case?
Do you believe your thoughts, choices and decisions are beyond your control?

Are “you” a biological machine?
12. Where are truth, goodness, freedom, justice, purpose and love?
In the relationship between conscious beings and their environment - where else should they be?

How do you know everything has a physical relationship?
13. The mind transcends matter and is not restricted to any physical location.
So, my mind can operate from the chair in which I am sitting? From your mind, even? This claim requires substantiation.

Your mind doesn’t operate from your chair but by itself! Is the activity of your mind restricted to one particular time or place? What causes your mental activity? Do you have any control over it? If so what is the source of that power of control?
14. Intangible realities are far more fundamental and significant than physical reality.
Are they?

Are truth, freedom and love more significant than your chair?
How so? How do we discern intangible realities?
By using our power of abstract reasoning.
Is this different from our discernment of physical realities?
Our inferences that there are physical realities are based on our perceptions.
  1. Material objects are unaware that anything exists!
 
Another circular assumption. The assumption being that if we cannot detect a thing as physical then it does not exist. Physics is either the cause of thought or it is not.
Actually, what I wrote is not at all a circular assumption. There is a demonstrable connection between brain activity and mental states, and unless there is some other entity responsible for brain activity, it is reasonable - certainly by your lights, at least - to suppose that this connection is the result of a causal relationship. Unless you can show that thought and consciousness have an existence independent of brain activity, you have no argument to support their non-physicality.
Well you can keep debating it while the rest of us face reality. We all know full well what we mean by freewill.
Which tells me precisely nothing about what you consider free will to be.
I am sure that every-time that you go to type a new post you do so with the belief that this is your own free volition at work and not something that is determined by a history of blind processes.
Yet my free volition would not provoke me to post, presumably, without a previous post to induce me to respond…
Freewill either exists or it does not. If it does, then physics alone is not a sufficient basis for explaining its existence or activity.
Firstly, why not? And secondly, there are degrees of freedom involved in the exercise of will - it’s not just a matter of absolute existence or absolute nonexistence.
Other than the fact that you making a straw-man of freewill, If your thoughts are the inevitable some total of physical events alone, then the idea of responsibility becomes meaningless.
It doesn’t advance your argument to claim that I am making a straw man of free will, unless you explain precisely what you understand free will to be.
The idea that you can in some way have control over the same physical events of which your thoughts are a direct product contradicts metaphysical naturalism, since it would require you to transcend physical processes in some way; otherwise you are just an inevitable outcome of physical laws, having no control over any effect.
This, despite the fact that the brain, as a physical entity, has significant influence over the other physical processes of the body? Even if brain states are influenced by external factors, this does not imply that the brain is just a passive sponge merely absorbing these influences.
Not by science alone we are not. Science deals with natural processes.
And the onus is upon those who believe unnatural processes exist, to demonstrate that they do…
 
If atheism is so superior to religion, as Dawkins absurdly insists, why is it that the rate of suicide is significantly higher among atheists than among the religious?

adherents.com/misc/religion_suicide.html

Dawkins has been deftly devastated in Alister McGrath’s The Dawkins Delusion.
 
If atheism is so superior to religion, as Dawkins absurdly insists, why is it that the rate of suicide is significantly higher among atheists than among the religious?

adherents.com/misc/religion_suicide.html

Dawkins has been deftly devastated in Alister McGrath’s The Dawkins Delusion.
A cruel cynic would say they don’t have to worry about hell - regardless of other considerations! 🙂

Your 5D response is a neat retort to my 3D enquiry. 😉
 
He is more complex. He did accept the help of both Hitler and Mussolini in winning the Civil War in Spain. But the Republican forces against who he was fighting were by the way anti-Catholic and murdered large numbers of priests, nuns and monks and defiled churches and the graves of saints. You can still see churchs in Spain today that are in ruins because of what they did.

So whereas Franco was no saint by and stretch of the imagination, you ahve to look at the alternative to understand what was happening and why he was maybe not the worse thing to have happened to Spain.

Once the war was won, Franco swore never to go to war again unless in the defence of Spain and symbolically laid his gun on the altar. Hitler pleaded with him to enter WW2 on his side but Franco refused (although he did allow some volunteers to go and fight on Hitler’s side). Franco also refused to round up and hand over the Jews living in Spain when Hitler demanded this. In fact many Jews who fled the Nazis passed through Spain on their way to the Americas. Hitler then said he could at least attack Gibraltar as that was technically part of Spain and so he wouldn’t be breaking his vow, but Franco refused and made an idiotic claim that he wanted Hitler to give him all the French colonies in Africa and then he would reconsider. Franco knew full weel that Hitler had recently assured the French Vichy government that Vichy France could keep its colonies in return for their collaboration. Hitler went home from the Hendaye conference and suposedly said he would rather go to the dentist and have all his teeth pulled than negotiate with Franco again. Hitler feared the dentist more than anything else BTW.

Not to mention the fact that if you look at some of footage from Hendaye on Youtube you can’t help but think that Franco was outright making fun of Hitler. Look at some of the body language. Look at the way Franco gives Hitler the two-hand shake rather than vice versa, as if he was Hitler’s mentor rather than vice-versa.

But back on the topic of Catholic Church, it is entireyl understandable that the Church organisation sided with the sie that protected them rather than with the side that was out to destroy them.
Cirdan:

Great post!

God bless,
jd
 
*If atheism is so superior to religion, as Dawkins absurdly insists, why is it that the rate of suicide is significantly higher among atheists than among the religious?
And of course it is the most logical conclusion of their belief that everything is ultimately purposeless, valueless and meaningless, i.e. absurd. The doctrine that we are sparks in the dark is hardly a source of consolation - especially in the bleak midwinter…
 
If only because there are apparently still more non-atheists in the world. And as many folks here are fond of saying, correlation does not indicate causation!
Sair:

So, you actually think I am not comparing per capita numbers? I’m stupid, but not that stupid, I hope! Wallow around on the web, and you’ll find that, person per person, Christians give hundreds of dollars more per year than do non-theists. More than likely, in the neighborhood of 70% - 80% more!
Well, now that there are more outspoken atheists, a lot of people like to claim that all atheists have an agenda.
Then, only (all) Christians have agendas? The Christian might attempt to put some thought-provoking rhetoric out to non-theists, but, in general, we don’t care about what atheists do for Christmas. If I know one, and I do, they will be invited to any holiday celebration just as any of my Christian friends would be. On the other hand, certainly the same cannot be said of atheists! Question: what harm is there with Christians putting up a Christmas display even in a public place? Where’s the harm?
Furthermore, I felt some clarification was necessary, since I have in the past encountered some random vitriol thrown my way with regard to the fact that I identify myself as a pantheist.
Sorry for other’s “vitriol,” Sair. That should not ever be the case. Unfortunately, sometimes it is. You’ve been around these parts for a long time. If said “vitriol” was more than you could bear, I expect that you would have long since departed our company. But, I guess that it could have been worse.
Do I know this? Can you see inside my head? How very gifted you must be!
I’m pretty sure I have been “gifted.” I’m pretty sure God has supplied me with a plethora of grace. I do not have x-ray vision, but, I can read. When we write, we are not hidden from public view, you know. 😉
My understanding was that on a discussion forum, the done thing was to offer an opinion with reasoned argument, regardless of what judgment I may or may not have formed of the comparative erudition of those to whom I direct my responses.
It’s simple to me: just treat us in the same manner that you wish to be treated. (And, ignore the vitriolic.) If you treat us as idiot children, we may respond with similar rhetoric. That said, perhaps we can now have a two-way conversation?

God bless, Sair, I hope you have a nice holiday,
jd
 
Sair:

So, you actually think I am not comparing per capita numbers? I’m stupid, but not that stupid, I hope! Wallow around on the web, and you’ll find that, person per person, Christians give hundreds of dollars more per year than do non-theists. More than likely, in the neighborhood of 70% - 80% more!
Well, your previous observation didn’t seem to indicate a statistical comparison. I have not done such a statistical comparison, so can’t comment other than the observation I made previously. Speaking as a nonbeliever who does, in fact, donate to several charities, I know not what generally motivates people to give or refrain from giving. I know people like to quote high-profile examples, such as Peter Singer (who recommends giving a quarter of one’s income to charity, and practises what he preaches) - but that doesn’t really mean much when it comes down to overall numbers. Be that as it may, I would have thought charitable donation alone was rather a narrow measure of the good done by any particular group of people in society, even if it is one of the easiest things to measure. I wonder if the amount of ‘good’ attending to religious believers over nonbelievers would seem higher if one took into account things like volunteer work, caring occupations, innovators, just people quietly doing their bit to make the world a better place? Hard to measure, but worth some thought.
Then, only (all) Christians have agendas? The Christian might attempt to put some thought-provoking rhetoric out to non-theists, but, in general, we don’t care about what atheists do for Christmas. If I know one, and I do, they will be invited to any holiday celebration just as any of my Christian friends would be. On the other hand, certainly the same cannot be said of atheists! Question: what harm is there with Christians putting up a Christmas display even in a public place? Where’s the harm?
Well, I don’t think there’s any harm in putting up Christmas displays, although I attach a rather different meaning to them than do those who actually put them up. Nor do I think there’s any harm in having men dressed as Santa Claus wandering through shopping centres waving bells, but again, I don’t invest any belief in it. If these things make people happy, why not, say I - but there are those who feel that this kind of thing is the pernicious encroachment of religion on the rest of society. If it’s just there, and people are aware of it, that’s not the same as ramming it down people’s throats, or actively intruding on people’s consciousness, a-la Jehova’s Witnesses with their door-knocking. I’m inclined to think that those who protest about the inclusion of religious imagery in everyday situations are a little bit uptight; as is so often said towards believers, if they are secure in their beliefs, they ought to be able to cope with having them questioned or challenged - the same is true of atheists.

It’s interesting, though, this back-and-forth accusation of having an ‘agenda’. When we get down to brass tacks, everyone has an agenda, in the sense of having a preferred state of affairs - some people are more committed to actively bringing about that state of affairs, and they are the ones who tend to intrude on people’s awareness. But it seems rather ridiculous to accuse atheists collectively of wanting to destroy religion, when if you scratched the surface, I suspect most believers would find it favourable to destroy atheism as well.
When we write, we are not hidden from public view, you know. 😉
Quite so, although I would still dispute that there was anything in my previous post that indicated a derogatory judgement formed of the comprehension of the person to whom I was responding. I simply pointed out what I believed to be the case, in response to a claim that it wasn’t. If it came across as derogatory, I apologise. But I will endeavour to correct what I feel to be misconceptions, if I think it is within my ability to do so.
It’s simple to me: just treat us in the same manner that you wish to be treated. (And, ignore the vitriolic.) If you treat us as idiot children, we may respond with similar rhetoric. That said, perhaps we can now have a two-way conversation?
As you say, writing on a public forum puts people on show - I try to be polite, but I don’t flinch from raising points that may be offensive to some people’s beliefs, nor will I ignore obvious attempts to belittle my own views. I will own that I find some beliefs to be, in themselves, rather stupid. That is my honest opinion. No doubt there are those who would find my beliefs stupid for various reasons. However, I do appreciate actual discussion, rather than blanket dismissal, or what is worse, the holier-than-thou approach that runs along the lines of, “Well, if you don’t know, it’s not my business to enlighten you” which I’ve seen on occasion. There’s no better way to reveal one’s own ignorance!
 
And the onus is upon those who believe unnatural processes exist, to demonstrate that they do…
This statement clearly makes evident your failure to grasp the epistemological nature of scientific knowledge. You are making claims about reality which go beyond the scientific data, therefore using science is not a reasonable basis alone upon which to justify your assumption of metaphysical naturalism. When doing philosophy, you have to use the rules of philosophy. I am also making claims that go beyond the scientific data. But I don’t have to directly demonstrate the existence of the non-physical. I merely have to demonstrate that physical causality isn’t sufficient enough to be an explanation for freewill. I have done this. You simply refuse to acknowledge the argument, while attempting to confuse the issue by making irrelevant statements about degrees of freedom. Its irrelevant that science has not or cannot conclude if there are other causes that are not physical. Science deals with a different context of knowledge and thus presents no logical limitation on what i can infer about the minds relationship to the physical in terms of causality and whether or not free will is possible if we assume that the physical absolutely causes the mental. The metaphysical naturalist by faith has to assume that physics absolutely causes the mental because according to you all is physical. Therefore you have to accept the rational consequences of that position in regards to any meaningful discussion about freewill. There can be no freedom at all if your thoughts are the inevitable sum total of blind physical events; a deterministic secretion of chemicals. Therefore metaphysical naturalism is not a rational basis for concluding that freewill exists; and it clearly does regardless of any trickery you can conjure up.

You are simply in denial of this fact.
 
This statement clearly makes evident your failure to grasp the epistemological nature of scientific knowledge. You are making claims about reality which go beyond the scientific data, therefore using science is not a reasonable basis upon which to justify your assumption of metaphysical naturalism.
On what basis do you assume that there is a duality of existence in this regard? I am not making assumptions that go beyond scientific data - I am simply denying the necessity of positing two different realms of reality - the natural and the supernatural.
When doing philosophy, you have to use the rules of philosophy. I am also making claims that go beyond the scientific data. But I don’t have to directly demonstrate the existence of the non-physical.
Why not? We can observe that what we call natural phenomena exist. It’s just guesswork to assume non-natural phenomena, since they cannot be observed, by definition. If they were observable, they would come under the auspices of natural phenomena subject to scientific enquiry.
I merely have to demonstrate that physical causality isn’t sufficient enough to be an explanation for freewill. I have done this.
Actually, you haven’t. You have put forward an argument from ignorance - you don’t see how physical causality can result in certain phenomena, such as consciousness and free will. In ages past, people had no scientific explanation for phenomena we now consider entirely natural, such as lightning and the turning of the seasons, even the apparent rising of the sun. I freely acknowledge that science doesn’t know everything - if it did, as Irish comedian Dara O’Briain eloquently observed, it would stop. You yourself acknowledge the present limits of scientific knowledge and methods - why posit an entirely different realm of existence that science can’t even touch?
Its irrelevant that science has not or cannot conclude this fact. Science deal with a different context knowledge. You simply refuse to acknowledge the argument, while attempting to confuse the issue by making irrelevant statements about degrees of freedom. Its irrelevant. There can be no freedom at all if your thoughts are the inevitable sum total of blind physical events; a deterministic secretion of chemicals.
You overlook the role of randomness in nature - not everything is predictable or has a certain outcome from a known beginning (just look at our continued failure to accurately predict the weather!) - as well as the fact that the human brain, as a natural object, is part of the web of cause and effect. To say that ‘we’ have no influence or control over our own actions is nonsense. We are both more and less free than the standard conception of free will would allow.
You are simply in denial.
Yes - in denial of the necessity of belief in supernatural phenomena. No-one has yet presented a compelling argument for such belief.
 
The fact that you are conscious means you have a mind, since consciousness is what a mind is.
So, in the event that we arrive at a scientific explanation for consciousness, you will acknowledge that the mind arises from the brain?
 
On what basis do you assume that there is a duality of existence in this regard?
I have presented the argument. You choose to ignore it and would rather pretend that it has no effect on your beliefs.
We can observe that what we call natural phenomena exist.
So can i. But It takes a very mature and honest person to admit that what we observe and experience alone cannot rationally explain what we observe and experience.
It’s just guesswork to assume non-natural phenomena
You are simply saying what ever you need to maintain the self delusion that metaphysical naturalism is rationally sufficient; but it is not.
since they cannot be observed, by definition. If they were observable, they would come under the auspices of natural phenomena subject to scientific enquiry.
It does not have to be observable in-order to be reasonably inferred.
Actually, you haven’t. You have put forward an argument from ignorance -
I have not put forward an argument from ignorance. I am not ignorant of what it means for something to be logically possible. You are.

I have essentially put forward the argument that if thoughts and actions are ultimately determined by non-rational processes, then freewill is meaningless. That which is the inevitable sum total of blind causality cannot logically be free anymore than a square can be a triangle. Its no more meaningful than saying that a square can be a triangle at the same time. You are saying that the non-rational can be rational at the same time; this is an essential contradiction no matter how you want to look at it. This has been pointed out to you on numerous occasions. Your response to this is precisely guesswork; that you think it may be possible simply on the basis that all you can see is physical things. This is a circular argument and is a completely ridiculous argument.

There is no rational reason to think that rationality can come form non-rationality. Its not just an epistemological problem; its essentially a logical problem. Science has not demonstrated that the brain and the mind are the same thing and they cannot. If you want me to think that freewill and rationality can come from that which is essentially non-rational, then the onus is on you to prove that. Presenting the fact that science has shown a close correlation between physical and mental events is not good enough, since logically speaking there is still no logical reason for me to think that the two are essentially the same thing.

I grow tied of this cat and mouse game. If you cannot be honest, i no-longer want to debate you. And that includes other threads. Scientism is not science.
 
So, in the event that we arrive at a scientific explanation for consciousness, you will acknowledge that the mind arises from the brain?
Science cannot directly measure the mind without already assuming that the brain is the same thing as the mind. Its a circular argument. So scientists cannot ever conclude that what they are measuring is synonymous with the mind. If they make that inference its not because an experiment has reveal it.

This is not difficult.
 
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