Did God change His mind in the new testament?

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Ok in the Old testament I think in the first 5 books somewhere there is a part where a woman gets stoned to death for committing adultery but in the New Testament Jesus tells them not to stone the lady because each of them also committed sins. Did God change what he wanted? I know we are under the law of the new testament and not of Moses but the law of Moses still is from God right?
 
One thing to keep in mind is that the physical and material curses/rewards of the OT were meant to prefigure the spiritual realities in the NT. Physical death prefigured spiritual death, a literal promised land prefigured a heavenly promised land. As such, Christ was the harbinger of something new, a better covenant, one of which would be marked by God’s mercy. This is important, because all of God’s grace and mercy is by the merits of the cross, and since the cross was predestined to happen in eternity, it can not be said, in a sense, that God changed His mind, at least in the crass human sense that we understand.

By demonstrating this mercy, Jesus also rather deftly avoided a trap the Jews intended to spring on Him. If he denied the Law, then his death would be demanded, but if he condoned the stoning, he would be violating Roman rule, which stated that executions could only be carried out through them.
 
=pm2222;8294377]Ok in the Old testament I think in the first 5 books somewhere there is a part where a woman gets stoned to death for committing adultery but in the New Testament Jesus tells them not to stone the lady because each of them also committed sins. Did God change what he wanted? I know we are under the law of the new testament and not of Moses but the law of Moses still is from God right?
***Good your thinking and that is a GREAT place to begin your search for the truth.

NO! God never changes.🙂

**Job.23: 3 ***“But he is unchangeable and who can turn him? What he desires, that he does.” … **Heb.6: 17 “**So when God desired to show more convincingly to the heirs of the promise the unchangeable character of his purpose, he interposed with an oath,”

Now the question becomes if God didn’t change how to account for this seemingly difference of opinion?

When God places someone in charge, God gives them all of the necessary authority and power to execute the position.
  1. The time period between Moses and Christ was approximately 2, 000 years, so culture changes are to be expected. Indeed, the process of “converting” the Hebrew Nation form false gods and false ways was a GREAT chlallange even for God.
  2. GOD personally gave Moses and the Jews 10 Commandments. They struggled even keeping those ten "things.’
  3. Moses added a great many additional rules, laws, commands. Among them were rules of “Jurisprudence” in an attempt to establish laws beyond “an eye for an eye” type mentality of the times. Keep in mind that “might makes right” was a big part of the culture.
  4. These were a people who equated “justice” with “must get even.” So many of the “laws” sought to accomplish this goal BECAUSE it was the ONLY acceptable goal to the people. Moses granting a “bill of divorce is another example of this.” The concept of charity was not foreign, but is also was not the norm.
  5. God by permiiting Moses to require LAWS that were enforceable was itself a HUGE part of the training and CONDITIONING of OBEDIENCE to laws ans commands that God sought. Additionally, God proves His TRUST in His appointees, also a necessary part of the Nations formulation to new and different ways.
In comparing the OT to Jesus and the NT it is critial to right understanding that the purpose of the OT was 1. Historical 2. Prophsies 3. First steps towards change and a new understanding. The NT 1. Completes the OT prophisies 2. Perfects and imporves through a MUCH GREATER emphasis on charity [now COMMANDED] 3. Teaches what God Himself actually wants, desires and commands.

The OTHER point is that in the T this was a consequence to MAN-MADE-LAW; now in the NT we being governed by GRACE [no-longer the “law”], it is what God deems as right[it was right all-along but the nation was not ready to accept it] that becomes the New Standard of behavior and JUSTICE by God’s standards, not our own.👍

Hope this clarifies it for you?

God Bless
Pat
**
 
***Good your thinking and that is a GREAT place to begin your search for the truth.

NO! God never changes.🙂

**Job.23: 3 *****“But he is unchangeable and who can turn him? What he desires, that he does.” … **Heb.6: 17 “**So when God desired to show more convincingly to the heirs of the promise the unchangeable character of his purpose, he interposed with an oath,”

Now the question becomes if God didn’t change how to account for this seemingly difference of opinion?

When God places someone in charge, God gives them all of the necessary authority and power to execute the position.
  1. The time period between Moses and Christ was approximately 2, 000 years, so culture changes are to be expected. Indeed, the process of “converting” the Hebrew Nation form false gods and false ways was a GREAT chlallange even for God.
  2. GOD personally gave Moses and the Jews 10 Commandments. They struggled even keeping those ten "things.’
  3. Moses added a great many additional rules, laws, commands. Among them were rules of “Jurisprudence” in an attempt to establish laws beyond “an eye for an eye” type mentality of the times. Keep in mind that “might makes right” was a big part of the culture.
  4. These were a people who equated “justice” with “must get even.” So many of the “laws” sought to accomplish this goal BECAUSE it was the ONLY acceptable goal to the people. Moses granting a “bill of divorce is another example of this.” The concept of charity was not foreign, but is also was not the norm.
  5. God by permiiting Moses to require LAWS that were enforceable was itself a HUGE part of the training and CONDITIONING of OBEDIENCE to laws ans commands that God sought. Additionally, God proves His TRUST in His appointees, also a necessary part of the Nations formulation to new and different ways.
In comparing the OT to Jesus and the NT it is critial to right understanding that the purpose of the OT was 1. Historical 2. Prophsies 3. First steps towards change and a new understanding. The NT 1. Completes the OT prophisies 2. Perfects and imporves through a MUCH GREATER emphasis on charity [now COMMANDED] 3. Teaches what God Himself actually wants, desires and commands.

The OTHER point is that in the T this was a consequence to MAN-MADE-LAW; now in the NT we being governed by GRACE [no-longer the “law”], it is what God deems as right[it was right all-along but the nation was not ready to accept it] that becomes the New Standard of behavior and JUSTICE by God’s standards, not our own.👍

Hope this clarifies it for you?

God Bless
Pat
I must say, PJM, that although I always enjoy your posts, I find a few inaccuracies in this one. First, however, I agree with you that G-d never changes, because change would indicate that G-d is imperfect. Now to my criticism (which, of course, you are free to disagree with). You state that Moses added rules, laws, and commands; that these laws are man-made. If you’re referring to the Torah (first five books of the Tanakh: Hebrew Bible), Orthodox and Conservative Judaism do NOT believe Moses “composed” these, but that they are the inspired Word of G-d “dictated” to Moses together with the Ten Commandments. The Torah is also called the Written Law. Orthodox Jews particularly also believe that the Talmud–at least the Mishnah, if not the rabbinical commentaries, which comprise the Gemara–is divinely inspired at the same time, in order to better interpret the Torah, and it is called the Oral Law. You refer to the “eye for an eye” verse. Did you know that one Jewish interpretation of that passage is not only in terms of justice but of mercy? That is, one should restrict one’s actions to an eye, or a tooth, etc. (metaphorically speaking) and not demand or extract a punishment that goes beyond the crime committed despite one’s personal feelings. Even the death penalty–both in ancient Israel and today–though rare, has its justification as the beginning of the atonement process and actually is, in that sense, being merciful to the perpetrator of the crime since their punishment will be less severe in Purgatory (Gehinnom). It also provides justice to the victim of the crime as well as society. I’ll leave out your statement that the New Testament completes the prophesies of the Hebrew Bible; as I’m sure you already realize, this is a major bone of contention between Christians and Jews. However, another point you make that now (in the New Testament) charity is commanded whereas it was not before, and that it was not the norm, but rather the norm was might makes right, is simply incorrect. The Torah and the whole Tanakh emphasize time and again the importance of human mercy toward neighbor as well as enemy, toward other people, both Jew and Gentile, as well as animals. Love and compassion demonstrated through acts of charity is a basic tenet of Judaism both today and in ancient times.
 
Ok i understand that in the NT the OT prophecies were fulfullied, but did God command them to have laws where if you do not follow the 10 commandments you get stoned or killed? And why woulnt God just allow them to have their sins forgiven in the beginning rather than having to redeem them?
 
=meltzerboy;8294798]I must say, PJM, that although I always enjoy your posts, I find a few inaccuracies in this one. First, however, I agree with you that G-d never changes, because change would indicate that G-d is imperfect. Now to my criticism (which, of course, you are free to disagree with). You state that Moses added rules, laws, and commands; that these laws are man-made. If you’re referring to the Torah (first five books of the Tanakh: Hebrew Bible), Orthodox and Conservative Judaism do NOT believe Moses “composed” these, but that they are the inspired Word of G-d “dictated” to Moses together with the Ten Commandments. The Torah is also called the Written Law.
***No my friend, what I am referencing here are the 300+ additions to the Commandments.

I certainly do not make lite of what MOSES did. He was waking With God and Speaking for [on behalf] of God. So there was GREAT authority and Wisdom to what he did. I was merely trying to give a historical perspective to what Yahweh taught and or permitted in comparison to seemingly the same situation in the NT times and Christ. I was hoping to show that there is no contradiction in either example. ***
Orthodox Jews particularly also believe that the Talmud–at least the Mishnah, if not the rabbinical commentaries, which comprise the Gemara–is divinely inspired at the same time, in order to better interpret the Torah, and it is called the Oral Law. You refer to the “eye for an eye” verse. Did you know that one Jewish interpretation of that passage is not only in terms of justice but of mercy? That is, one should restrict one’s actions to an eye, or a tooth, etc. (metaphorically speaking) and not demand or extract a punishment that goes beyond the crime committed despite one’s personal feelings. Even the death penalty–both in ancient Israel and today–though rare, has its justification as the beginning of the atonement process and actually is,
No, I was not aware of that. How far does that date back? That is really interestering. THANKS,
in that sense, being merciful to the perpetrator of the crime since their punishment will be less severe in Purgatory (Gehinnom).
Where can I get more information on this? I was unaware of this too.😊 [Darn I hate it when that happens]. 😊
It also provides justice to the victim of the crime as well as society. I’ll leave out your statement that the New Testament completes the prophesies of the Hebrew Bible; as I’m sure you already realize, this is a major bone of contention between Christians and Jews. However, another point you make that now (in the New Testament) charity is commanded whereas it was not before, and that it was not the norm, but rather the norm was might makes right, is simply incorrect.
SINCERE THANKS for the corection!
The Torah and the whole Tanakh emphasize time and again the importance of human mercy toward neighbor as well as enemy, toward other people, both Jew and Gentile, as well as animals. Love and compassion demonstrated through acts of charity is a basic tenet of Judaism both today and in ancient times.
I am grateful for the information!

God Bless you,
Shalome,
Pat
 
Ok i understand that in the NT the OT prophecies were fulfullied, but did God command them to have laws where if you do not follow the 10 commandments you get stoned or killed? And why woulnt God just allow them to have their sins forgiven in the beginning rather than having to redeem them?
It’s easier to think in terms of a Divine Pedagogy. Basically, of Israel as God’s first-born son, being slowly fathered through both the New and the Old. When one thinks in terms of Fatherhood, God is basically reaching out to a stubborn, prideful people who have been intellectually and spiritually darkened by the Fall. He is starting from scratch, as it were. This is in no way to state that there was not Grace prior to the cross, or that the Jews did not believe in Grace. However, both covenant rewards as well as covenant punishments in the Old Testament tended to be of an earthly, temporal nature. This would point to their spiritual realities in the New Covenant. This is a common theme of the spiritual life as understood by both Jews and Christians. The stages of the spiritual life were patterned in both the Tabernacle and the Temple, as one is progressively brought close to the Divine Presence. The earthly, animal sacrifices of the first stage led to interior spiritual truths of the second stage, where one finds the bread of the presence and a menorah.

Human death as punishments, as well as healing in the Old, often point to spiritual realities of death and sanctification in the New. Essentially, the entire arch of Old and New is of God bringing his child from darkness to light, as it was in the beginning before the Fall. Because of this, the Law can be seen as “starting small.” A process, if you will, of gradual spiritual instruction.

To answer your second question, one must realize that God is a personal being. It is no accident that marital imagery is most often used to describe His relationship with His people. If a woman cheated on her spouse, that rift is severe, and must be made right before a relationship can be resumed. In God’s case, the hurt and anguish is eternal, since He is eternal. It must be made right before He, as a perfectly just God, can wed Himself to us once again. He gives us the means, we only have to try, like a child jumping up for his father’s arms, and God will reach down and bring us the rest of the way. Such is the nature of Grace.

Jesus satisfies the requirements. Since His sacrifice was one of perfect love, the emotional aspect is satisfied in healing the gulf between man and God. The rift is healed, and God’s grace is overflowing.

And again, because the cross is predestined before the creation of the world, God can show such Grace and Mercy even in the Old, as a form of Divine Forbearance, because the cross has opened the floodgates across time. However, this does not change the fact that the Law as given in the Old will of a necessity be more primitive in form with Israel. One does not give lectures on advanced familial ethics to a spiritual toddler. Does this make sense?
 
Ok i understand that in the NT the OT prophecies were fulfullied, but did God command them to have laws where if you do not follow the 10 commandments you get stoned or killed? And why woulnt God just allow them to have their sins forgiven in the beginning rather than having to redeem them?
Jews in the OT were saved by the same thing we are God’s grace through faith. May people think Jews were saved by obeying the Law of Moses, this is not true. Jews obeyed the law as best the could out or reverence and gratitude for God’s goodness, but keeping every part of the law was impossible. Peter called the Law of Moses a burden neither the forfathers or the apostles could bear (Acts 15:10). The point of the law was and is to maintain the Jews as a distinct ethnic and religious group to play their role in Jesus ministry and, I believe, a role in the end times (Read Revelations about the 144,000 Jewish witnesses who will evangelize the world as we near Christ’s return). Since Jesus extended God’s grace to Gentiles, the law was removed for them.
More specific to your original question, the law ordered the adulterous woman and man to be stoned. Since the teachers of the law brought only a woman to Jesus it was a set up and Jesus knew it.
 
Jews in the OT were saved by the same thing we are God’s grace through faith. May people think Jews were saved by obeying the Law of Moses, this is not true. Jews obeyed the law as best the could out or reverence and gratitude for God’s goodness, but keeping every part of the law was impossible. Peter called the Law of Moses a burden neither the forfathers or the apostles could bear (Acts 15:10). The point of the law was and is to maintain the Jews as a distinct ethnic and religious group to play their role in Jesus ministry and, I believe, a role in the end times (Read Revelations about the 144,000 Jewish witnesses who will evangelize the world as we near Christ’s return). Since Jesus extended God’s grace to Gentiles, the law was removed for them.
More specific to your original question, the law ordered the adulterous woman and man to be stoned. Since the teachers of the law brought only a woman to Jesus it was a set up and Jesus knew it.
Judaism’s main focus is not salvation, but leading a moral earthly life. The Torah Law is designed to enable us to know how to lead such a life. I don’t know what Peter meant by calling the Law a burden; however, Moses said in Deuteronomy just the opposite: that it is not difficult to follow. No Orthodox Jew would say that following the Law is a burden. On the contrary, they would call it freedom by providing them with a sense of moral understanding and guidance. And the fact that no one can practice all the commandments perfectly is not a problem for the Torah Jew either, for G-d judges by our good intentions and prayer and desire for improvement. IOW, we don’t have to be perfect and G-d forgives our imperfections.
 
Jews in the OT were saved by the same thing we are God’s grace through faith. May people think Jews were saved by obeying the Law of Moses, this is not true. Jews obeyed the law as best the could out or reverence and gratitude for God’s goodness, but keeping every part of the law was impossible. Peter called the Law of Moses a burden neither the forfathers or the apostles could bear (Acts 15:10). The point of the law was and is to maintain the Jews as a distinct ethnic and religious group to play their role in Jesus ministry and, I believe, a role in the end times (Read Revelations about the 144,000 Jewish witnesses who will evangelize the world as we near Christ’s return). Since Jesus extended God’s grace to Gentiles, the law was removed for them.
More specific to your original question, the law ordered the adulterous woman and man to be stoned. Since the teachers of the law brought only a woman to Jesus it was a set up and Jesus knew it.
It is 144,000 Israelite’s not Jews. 12,000 of the 144,000 are Jews from the tribe of Judah. In my opinion and many others this has already been fulfilled however in 70 A.D.
 
Judaism’s main focus is not salvation, but leading a moral earthly life. The Torah Law is designed to enable us to know how to lead such a life. I don’t know what Peter meant by calling the Law a burden; however, Moses said in Deuteronomy just the opposite: that it is not difficult to follow. No Orthodox Jew would say that following the Law is a burden. On the contrary, they would call it freedom by providing them with a sense of moral understanding and guidance. And the fact that no one can practice all the commandments perfectly is not a problem for the Torah Jew either, for G-d judges by our good intentions and prayer and desire for improvement. IOW, we don’t have to be perfect and G-d forgives our imperfections.
Some of the laws definitely fit your description. However others such as the law that states that a man must not touch a menstruating woman is a burden without reason. The divorce laws especially were given by Moses because of the hardness of heart of the Israelite’s no? Moses ordered the sacrificing of cows, sheep, and goats because the Israelite’s kept trying to worship them because of their habits from their time in Egypt. By making them sacrifice these animals and throwing their blood on the people he made sure the point hit home that there is only one God.
 
Some of the laws definitely fit your description. However others such as the law that states that a man must not touch a menstruating woman is a burden without reason. The divorce laws especially were given by Moses because of the hardness of heart of the Israelite’s no? Moses ordered the sacrificing of cows, sheep, and goats because the Israelite’s kept trying to worship them because of their habits from their time in Egypt. By making them sacrifice these animals and throwing their blood on the people he made sure the point hit home that there is only one God.
There is a reason for EVERYTHING in the Torah. It is NEVER considered a burden to follow the commandments. Refraining from sex with one’s wife may not have a biological reason, but it has a psychological one: abstinence makes the heart grow fonder is one such. Animal sacrifice, never the main source of atonement, was based on the belief that the blood contained the life spirit of the animal, as stated in Leviticus. That’s also why Jews are forbidden to eat the blood of an animal: the koshering process drains the blood by adding salt. And animals must be killed using the sharpest needle available to inflict the least pain at the same time as a blessing must be said before the killing. I don’t know where you got the information that the sacrifices were made to discourage idolatry or that Moses threw the blood on the people. The sacrifices were done on the altar in the Temple. It may sound primitive and barbaric to us, but that was the Law, just as some of our laws may seem primitive to generations that follow.
 
There is a reason for EVERYTHING in the Torah. It is NEVER considered a burden to follow the commandments. Refraining from sex with one’s wife may not have a biological reason, but it has a psychological one: abstinence makes the heart grow fonder is one such. Animal sacrifice, never the main source of atonement, was based on the belief that the blood contained the life spirit of the animal, as stated in Leviticus. That’s also why Jews are forbidden to eat the blood of an animal: the koshering process drains the blood by adding salt. And animals must be killed using the sharpest needle available to inflict the least pain at the same time as a blessing must be said before the killing. I don’t know where you got the information that the sacrifices were made to discourage idolatry or that Moses threw the blood on the people. The sacrifices were done on the altar in the Temple. It may sound primitive and barbaric to us, but that was the Law, just as some of our laws may seem primitive to generations that follow.
Look at the animals he had them kill and when he laid down the idea of animal sacrifice. It was right after the golden calf. He wanted them to kill the three animals that the Egyptians were worshiping as god’s and they were tempted to worship as well. Coincidence?
 
=pm2222;8294917]Ok i understand that in the NT the OT prophecies were fulfullied, but did God command them to have laws where if you do not follow the 10 commandments you get stoned or killed? And why woulnt God just allow them to have their sins forgiven in the beginning rather than having to redeem them?
These additional laws were permitted and recogonized by God. Remember this was a primitive people **not yet **on a par with the the Egyptians, Romana and Greeks.

Forgiveness was through the priest.

Priest and FORGIVENESS OF SIN IN THE OLD TESTAMENT

Lev.4: 20,26, 31 “Thus shall he do with the bull; as he did with the bull of the sin offering, so shall he do with this; and the priest shall make atonement for them, and they shall be forgiven. …] And all its fat he shall burn on the altar, like the fat of the sacrifice of peace offerings; so the priest shall make atonement for him for his sin, and he shall be forgiven. …And all its fat he shall remove, as the fat is removed from the peace offerings, and the priest shall burn it upon the altar for a pleasing odor to the LORD; and the priest shall make atonement for him, and he shall be forgiven.

**Lev.5: 13 “Thus the priest shall make atonement for him for the sin which he has committed in any one of these things, and he shall be forgiven. And the remainder shall be for the priest, as in the cereal offering." … Lev.6:7 **“and the priest shall make atonement for him before the LORD, and he shall be forgiven for any of the things which one may do and thereby become guilty."

Lev.16: 8-9, 21 “and Aaron shall cast lots upon the two goats, one lot for the LORD and the other lot for Aza’zel. … And Aaron shall present the goat on which the lot fell for the LORD, and offer it as a sin offering; …and Aaron shall lay both his hands upon the head of the live goat, and confess over him all the iniquities of the people of Israel, and all their transgressions, all their sins; and he shall put them upon the head of the goat, and send him away into the wilderness by the hand of a man who is in readiness.”

There is a HUGE difference between “permitting” and “commanding”. And yes there “Redempton” was conditioanl on circumssion [now like our Baptism] and Obedience to the Commandments and laws issued to them.

God Bles,
Pat
 
=Nathan Wagar;8295264]It’s easier to think in terms of a Divine Pedagogy. Basically, of Israel as God’s first-born son, being slowly fathered through both the New and the Old. When one thinks in terms of Fatherhood, God is basically reaching out to a stubborn, prideful people who have been intellectually and spiritually darkened by the Fall. He is starting from scratch, as it were. This is in no way to state that there was not Grace prior to the cross, or that the Jews did not believe in Grace. However, both covenant rewards as well as covenant punishments in the Old Testament tended to be of an earthly, temporal nature. This would point to their spiritual realities in the New Covenant. This is a common theme of the spiritual life as understood by both Jews and Christians. The stages of the spiritual life were patterned in both the Tabernacle and the Temple, as one is progressively brought close to the Divine Presence. The earthly, animal sacrifices of the first stage led to interior spiritual truths of the second stage, where one finds the bread of the presence and a menorah.
Human death as punishments, as well as healing in the Old, often point to spiritual realities of death and sanctification in the New. Essentially, the entire arch of Old and New is of God bringing his child from darkness to light, as it was in the beginning before the Fall. Because of this, the Law can be seen as “starting small.” A process, if you will, of gradual spiritual instruction.
To answer your second question, one must realize that God is a personal being. It is no accident that marital imagery is most often used to describe His relationship with His people. If a woman cheated on her spouse, that rift is severe, and must be made right before a relationship can be resumed. In God’s case, the hurt and anguish is eternal, since He is eternal. It must be made right before He, as a perfectly just God, can wed Himself to us once again. He gives us the means, we only have to try, like a child jumping up for his father’s arms, and God will reach down and bring us the rest of the way. Such is the nature of Grace.
Jesus satisfies the requirements. Since His sacrifice was one of perfect love, the emotional aspect is satisfied in healing the gulf between man and God. The rift is healed, and God’s grace is overflowing.
And again, because the cross is predestined before the creation of the world, God can show such Grace and Mercy even in the Old, as a form of Divine Forbearance, because the cross has opened the floodgates across time. However, this does not change the fact that the Law as given in the Old will of a necessity be more primitive in form with Israel. One does not give lectures on advanced familial ethics to a spiritual toddler. Does this make sense?
THANKS, well done:thumbsup:
 
Ex. 24:3-8
Blood of the oxen that were sacrificed thrown on the people.
 
Ex. 24:3-8
Blood of the oxen that were sacrificed thrown on the people.
OK, but Moses did not throw the blood of the oxen on the people in anger as if to tell them not to worship false gods. Rather, it was sprinkled on them and the other half was sprinkled on the altar as a sign of the Covenant between G-d and Man.
 
OK, but Moses did not throw the blood of the oxen on the people in anger as if to tell them not to worship false gods. Rather, it was sprinkled on them and the other half was sprinkled on the altar as a sign of the Covenant between G-d and Man.
I never said it was done in anger, but rather helped to get a point across. However I think you are taking this to mean that I’m saying the only reason animals were sacrificed were because of this line of reasoning and I’m not. We have animal sacrifices starting all the way back with Cain and Able. You also have Abraham setting the precedent that the first tenth of our labor goes to God. I think sacrifices were largely originally based out of this mentality that we are giving to God the best of the results of our labor as a sign of our realization that everything we have belongs to him.
 
I never said it was done in anger, but rather helped to get a point across. However I think you are taking this to mean that I’m saying the only reason animals were sacrificed were because of this line of reasoning and I’m not. We have animal sacrifices starting all the way back with Cain and Able. You also have Abraham setting the precedent that the first tenth of our labor goes to God. I think sacrifices were largely originally based out of this mentality that we are giving to God the best of the results of our labor as a sign of our realization that everything we have belongs to him.
I’m basing what I said on your post #11, indicating that Moses did not want the people to worship other gods and therefore threw the animal blood on them. I also think we’re straying too far from the OP topic.
 
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