N
Neithan
Guest
1 Samuel 15: 2-3 (NAB):
“The interpretation of God’s will here attributed to Samuel is in keeping with the abhorrent practices of blood revenge prevalent among pastoral, seminomadic peoples such as the Hebrews had recently been. The slaughter of the innocent has never been in conformity with the will of God.”
However, the Dhouay-Rheims Bible text is clarified differently:
“The great Master of life and death (who cuts off one half of all mankind whilst they are children) has been pleased sometimes to ordain that children should be put to the sword, in detestation of the crimes of their parents, and that they might not live to follow the same wicked ways. But without such ordinance of God it is not allowable, in any wars, how just soever, to kill children.”
So which is it? Did God order the Israelites to murder the innocent children, or is this always contrary to the Will of God?
If the former, then we seem to have a Euthyphro Dilemma, as murdering innocents is an evil act, made good by the command of God.
If the latter, then does this mean that Samuel misinterpreted and misinformed the Israelites of the Will of God? How could that happen considering He was a prophet?
In this passage from Scripture, it appears that God has told Samuel to order the Israelites to slaughter Amalekite children and infants! But the gloss on verse 3 from the New American Bible reads:2
This is what the LORD of hosts has to say: ‘I will punish what Amalek did to Israel when he barred his way as he was coming up from Egypt.
3 1 Go, now, attack Amalek, and deal with him and all that he has under the ban. Do not spare him, but kill men and women, children and infants, oxen and sheep, camels and asses.’"
“The interpretation of God’s will here attributed to Samuel is in keeping with the abhorrent practices of blood revenge prevalent among pastoral, seminomadic peoples such as the Hebrews had recently been. The slaughter of the innocent has never been in conformity with the will of God.”
However, the Dhouay-Rheims Bible text is clarified differently:
“The great Master of life and death (who cuts off one half of all mankind whilst they are children) has been pleased sometimes to ordain that children should be put to the sword, in detestation of the crimes of their parents, and that they might not live to follow the same wicked ways. But without such ordinance of God it is not allowable, in any wars, how just soever, to kill children.”
So which is it? Did God order the Israelites to murder the innocent children, or is this always contrary to the Will of God?
If the former, then we seem to have a Euthyphro Dilemma, as murdering innocents is an evil act, made good by the command of God.
If the latter, then does this mean that Samuel misinterpreted and misinformed the Israelites of the Will of God? How could that happen considering He was a prophet?