I look at the following passages and I can’t explain why if Jesus knew He was God the Son, He repeatedly said that He had a God.
In the following verses, those words were written down as spoken by Jesus Himself. For some reason when Jesus prayed, the evangelists often say that He prayed to “God” (not “Father” which would support the Trinitarian belief).
Bible references from NIV;
www.biblegateway.com I have bolded texts to emphasise the parts of my concern.
Matthew 24:36
"No one knows about that day or hour, not even the angels in heaven,
nor the Son, but only the Father
Matthew 27:46
About the ninth hour Jesus cried out in a loud voice, “Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani?”—which means, “
My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”
Mark 15:34
And at the ninth hour Jesus cried out in a loud voice, “Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani?”—which means, “
My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”
John 4:22
You Samaritans worship what you do not know;
we worship what we do know, for salvation is from the Jews.
He might have included Himself here as those who worship God
John 8:54
Jesus replied, "If I glorify myself, my glory means nothing.
My Father, whom you claim as your God, is the one who glorifies me.
Is Jesus indicating that only His Father is the God of the Jews? Why did Jesus say that the Jews claimed only His Father as their God (even though they didnt believe Jesus was His Son)? After all isnt the Son and the Holy Spirit the Jews’ God as well?
John 14:28
"You heard me say, ‘I am going away and I am coming back to you.’ If you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to the Father,
for the Father is greater than I.
**John 17:3 **
3Now this is eternal life: that they may know
you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent.
Also, He doesn’t include the Holy Spirit here.
John 20:17
Jesus said, “Do not hold on to me, for I have not yet returned to the Father. Go instead to my brothers and tell them, ‘I am returning to my Father and your Father, to
my God and your God.’”
(debatable) Mark 10
17As Jesus started on his way, a man ran up to him and fell on his knees before him. “Good teacher,” he asked, “what must I do to inherit eternal life?”
18"Why do you call me good?" Jesus answered. "No one is good—except God alone. 19You know the commandments: 'Do not murder, do not commit adultery, do not steal, do not give false testimony, do not defraud, honor your father and mother.
If Jesus
was indirectly referring to Himself as “God”, it would be the first time in the Gospel of Mark. He does call Himself “I am” in John 8:58, but there is debate as what He meant.
1. What are the apologetics to use to explain these verses?
2. Did the evangelists misinterpret the meaning of Jesus’ words?
3. Is there any room in Catholic doctrine to say that although Jesus was God incarnate, during His ministry He was not fully aware of the extent of His divinity until a later time (e.g. the Ascension)?
Personal suggestion: I know about other verses which indicate Jesus’ divinity such as John 1 and John 8:58. But there is no denying that there are these other verses (listed above) as well.
Please don’t start listing other verses which point to or indicate His divinity unless they are needed to explain something specific, because I have seen most of the commonly quoted scriptures and also the title of this thread is about what Jesus said and thought about Himself, not what the Church teaches.