Does it not? Maybe I’m looking at it wrong then… I was thinking that if Jesus referred to a writing specifically (as in agreement with it), wouldn’t it be odd to dismiss it? I may be wrong, which is why I asked…
No. I think you’re looking at it right. That’s the same logic that Protestants and Catholics use to determine if, for example, the story of Jonah is true and inspired. Otherwise, it sounds like a fantastic story. Yet Jesus treated it like fact.
Let’s see.
Matthew 6:12, 14-15—“Forgive us our debts, as we forgive our debtors; if you forgive others their transgressions, your heavenly Father will forgive you. But if you do not forgive others, neither will your heavenly father forgive your transgressions.”
Sirach 28:2—“Forgive your neighbor’s injustice; then when you pray, your own sins will be forgiven.”
John 5:18—“For this reason the Jews tried all the more to kill him, because he not only broke the Sabbath, but he also called God his own Father, making himself equal to God.”
Wisdom 2:16—“He judges us debased; he holds aloof from our paths as from things impure. He calls blest the destiny of the just and boasts that God is his Father.”
John 10:29—“My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all, and no one can take them out of the Father’s hand.”
Wisdom 3:1—“But the souls of the just are in the hand of God, and no torment shall touch them.”
But they’re not exact quotes, so…what do you think? Will your friend accept them?
