Did Jesus have an inclination to sin?

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Understanding that Jesus was like us in all ways but sin, do I understand then that he had no inclination to sin? Obviously the devil tempted him but I do not understand the term “inclination to sin” and if he was free of original sin, did he then not have any inclination to sin?

Appreciate any help here and any references on the subject. This is for a men’s group studying the catechism.
 
Porknpie said:
Understanding that Jesus was like us in all ways but sin, do I understand then that he had no inclination to sin? Obviously the devil tempted him but I do not understand the term “inclination to sin” and if he was free of original sin, did he then not have any inclination to sin?

Appreciate any help here and any references on the subject. This is for a men’s group studying the catechism.
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I do not have any references, but from my beliefs, I don’t believe that Jesus had any inclination to sin (nor did Our Immaculate Lady), given that inclination to sin (referred to as “concupiscence,” I believe) refers to an ardent, longing desire to sin. I don’t believe Jesus longed and desired to sin; He may have been tempted to by Satan, but I don’t believe He had any inclination.
 
Immacolata said:
I do not have any references, but from my beliefs, I don’t believe that Jesus had any inclination to sin (nor did Our Immaculate Lady), given that inclination to sin (referred to as “concupiscence,” I believe) refers to an ardent, longing desire to sin. I don’t believe Jesus longed and desired to sin; He may have been tempted to by Satan, but I don’t believe He had any inclination.
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HI, I believe that the mind of G-d is able to be as subjective as he is objective. He is the second Adam. So by deduction it is obvious the first Adam sinned. Jesus is the second Adam one who abolishes sin justifying mankind. G-d bless you in Jesus name
 
We believe in the Holy Trinity, God The Father, God The Son (Jesus) and God The Holy Spirit. To say God The Son had an inclination toward sin is to say that God The Father has an inclination toward sin. We certainly could not say God could/would sin. When it is said the devil “tempted” him, it was through his arrogance that he could lead Jesus to sin.

I am not a theologian, but a Catholic on a never ending journey to learn, so if I state incorrectly it is through my ignorance and I apologize.
 
geewizz said:
HI, I believe that the mind of G-d is able to be as subjective as he is objective. He is the second Adam. So by deduction it is obvious the first Adam sinned. Jesus is the second Adam one who abolishes sin justifying mankind. G-d bless you in Jesus name
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Was not Jesus who come from Adam through Mary not affected by original sin ? Everyone who is born into this world is affected by original sin and DEATH.
Christ did experiance DEATH.
 
“For it is not as if we had a high priest who was incapable of feeling our weaknesses with us; but we have one who has been tempted in every way that we are, though he is without sin.” [Hebrews 4:15]
 
He did not have the tendency to be lured or enticed by sin as we are…this is concupisence and is a result of our fall.

Mary and Jesus who had not been affected by the fall (mary due to a singular grace by God “I will put emnity between you and the woman” and Jesus by being the PURE lamb of God and God almighty).

Tempted yes, but never sinning and NEVER holding the twisted view of the world we all have due to original sin.
 
MichaelHowling said:
He did not have the tendency to be lured or enticed by sin as we are…this is concupisence and is a result of our fall.

Mary and Jesus who had not been affected by the fall (mary due to a singular grace by God “I will put emnity between you and the woman” and Jesus by being the PURE lamb of God and God almighty).

Tempted yes, but never sinning and NEVER holding the twisted view of the world we all have due to original sin.
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What about John the baptist, Was he affected by the fall with a inclination to Sin because of original Sin ?

John the baptist parents were ‘‘righteous and blameless’’ regarding keeping the Law. Luke 1:6. Were they NOT affected by the fall and original Sin because of their Righteousness ?
 
A_BayouCatholic said:
We believe in the Holy Trinity, God The Father, God The Son (Jesus) and God The Holy Spirit. To say God The Son had an inclination toward sin is to say that God The Father has an inclination toward sin. We certainly could not say God could/would sin. When it is said the devil “tempted” him, it was through his arrogance that he could lead Jesus to sin.

I am not a theologian, but a Catholic on a never ending journey to learn, so if I state incorrectly it is through my ignorance and I apologize.
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Sounds right to me, but then again I am no theologian either
 
Porknpie said:
Understanding that Jesus was like us in all ways but sin, do I understand then that he had no inclination to sin? Obviously the devil tempted him but I do not understand the term “inclination to sin” and if he was free of original sin, did he then not have any inclination to sin?

Appreciate any help here and any references on the subject. This is for a men’s group studying the catechism.
Click to expand...
He had temptations as do all of us of this dual nature. I don’t know how taxing this could have been to him given his disposition and state of conscience.
 
Living 33 years among mankind …he saw us give in to temptations. But, he also saw Mary stay pure. She never gave in to temptations…neither did Christ.

Christ could not of taught those he healed to go, and sin no more …if it were not possible.
 
brb3 said:
Living 33 years among mankind …he saw us give in to temptations. But, he also saw Mary stay pure. She never gave in to temptations…neither did Christ.

Christ could not of taught those he healed to go, and sin no more …if it were not possible.
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Jesus healed them Physically. Does that mean he healed them spiritually also and freed the from original sin so they did not have the Inclination to sin anymore ?
 
Porknpie said:
Understanding that Jesus was like us in all ways but sin, do I understand then that he had no inclination to sin? Obviously the devil tempted him but I do not understand the term “inclination to sin” and if he was free of original sin, did he then not have any inclination to sin?

.
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Right – free from original sin and thus free from concupiscence …free from the “inclination to sin”.
 
shaky said:
Jesus healed them Physically. Does that mean he healed them spiritually also and freed the from original sin so they did not have the Inclination to sin anymore ?
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No, but a command to exercise free-wills, to choose to obey, to renounce bad habits, to repent of them …and become righteous.
 
shaky said:
What about John the baptist, Was he affected by the fall with a inclination to Sin because of original Sin ?

John the baptist parents were ‘‘righteous and blameless’’ regarding keeping the Law. Luke 1:6. Were they NOT affected by the fall and original Sin because of their Righteousness ?
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I’d say he was like Mary …graced in the womb, baptized by HS, a special case for sure. Did he have OS & Concupicence ? May of at his creation, but not at his birth…IMO.
 
brb3 said:
I’d say he was like Mary …graced in the womb, baptized by HS, a special case for sure. Did he have OS & Concupicence ? May of at his creation, but not at his birth…IMO.
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Did you say at his creation??? He was begotten not made.

Christ always was and therefore never was created.
 
Porknpie said:
Understanding that Jesus was like us in all ways but sin, do I understand then that he had no inclination to sin? Obviously the devil tempted him but I do not understand the term “inclination to sin” and if he was free of original sin, did he then not have any inclination to sin?

Appreciate any help here and any references on the subject. This is for a men’s group studying the catechism.
Click to expand...
As I see it, any sin will be harmful to oneself, and often to others as well. Therefore, being tempted to commit a sin would mean that one is under the delusion that the sin will actually be beneficial to onself, and perhaps others. If one does not on some level think the sin is good, then it is not even slightly tempting. If Jesus had a perfect human mind, free from all delusions, then he could not possibly be tempted to commit a sin, because his being tempted would mean that he was deluded.

The text you refer to says Jesus was tempted by the devil. But the same word could just as easily be translated as “tested” by the devil, and so it need not mean that the author thought of Jesus as being inclined towards sin.
 
brb3 said:
No, but a command to exercise free-wills, to choose to obey, to renounce bad habits, to repent of them …and become righteous.
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If God knows those without original sin never Sin. Why can’t he make us when we are born Again be without/free from original Sin so we can never sin again ?
 
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