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AMEN!I can not believe that Jesus Christ had two souls. .
Good cause he did not.
The Catholic Church teaches that:
Jesus had one soul.
AMEN!I can not believe that Jesus Christ had two souls. .
You put the teachings of the church above the Word of God, and I put the Word of God above the teachings of the church.
LAMENTABILI SANE: condemns the following: 4. Even by dogmatic definitions the Church’s magisterium cannot determine the genuine sense of the Sacred Scriptures. and 23. Opposition may, and actually does, exist between the facts narrated in Sacred Scripture and the Church’s dogmas which rest on them. Thus the critic may reject as false facts the Church holds as most certain.Ever since the Nicene councils the power of the gospel has been decimated by the theology of the Son of God that would deny that he had faith, and trusted in his Heavenly Father. …“The traditions of men, have made the word of God of no effect”
Here is my theological argument:Aaaa…he was not.
The Baptism was NOT the Sacrament of Baptism. It was the Baptism of John…not that of Jesus and the Church…
What the Church teaches is completely in line with the Scriptures…not worries thereI don’t know which is worse, to say that the Son of God became flesh with a human soul only, or to assume (as I just did, that the Catholic Church teaches that the Son of God was a Divine soul who dwelt in a human body and a human soul)
Such is NOT what the Church teaches…the Logos did not “dwell” in a human body and a human soul…The Word became flesh…incarnate …Jesus is the Son of God…true God and true Man …for more see Gospel of John and the Catechism etc
Now at least, I know what the church teaches, and how she arrived at this conclusion. So, thanks for that information.
I think you first readings have left some not true impressions and understandings…
I do believe that when Jesus Christ said, “I came down from heaven not to do my will, but the will of the one who sent me.” that he was speaking of his own soul and will coming down from heaven as the Son of God and became flesh, and not taking on a human soul.
Jesus did not have a soul prior to the incarnation…he is the eternal Son of God…he could not have from eternity a “soul”…it was only at the incarnation that became Man without ceasing to be God
However, I would be unwise not to search the scriptures and see if what the church says about Jesus Christ having a human soul is true or not.
It is not absurd to claim that the “Baptism of John” that Jesus received was the Baptism of John…for such is what it was.Here is my theological argument:
The Sacrament of Baptism is of water and the Spirit.
John baptized many persons only with water, so his baptism was not the Sacrament.
John’s baptism was a baptism of repentance.
However, when Jesus was baptized by John, the Holy Spirit was sent upon Him by the Father. So this one baptism of John was of water and the Spirit. The other requirement for a valid Baptism is a Trinitarian formula. Since the Father spoke and sent the Spirit uppon the Son, the requirement that a valid Baptism be Trinitarian is fulfilled. Nothing else is lacking. All that the Church teaches is necessary and sufficient for a valid Sacrament of Baptism was present, therefore, Christ received a valid Sacrament of Baptism.
Jesus did not need to repent, so He had no need of a baptism of repentance.
Jesus did not need to be Baptized with the Sacrament, since His human nature had sanctifying grace from the Incarnation. But it was fitting for Him to receive the Sacrament, so that His human soul would have the indelible character just as all His baptized followers have, and so that He would be an example to us all that we should follow, also receiving Baptism. Furthermore, Baptism is the sign of entrance into the Body of Christ, and so it is fitting for Christ Himself, as the head of the body, so also have receive the same Baptism.
Finally, it is absurd to claim that the baptism received by Jesus, was not the Baptism that is of Jesus. As our high priest, Jesus could not have receive the lesser non-Sacramental baptism of John, but only the full Sacrament that proceeds from His side on the Cross.
St. Thomas Aquinas in the Summa states the Baptism of Jesus was not a sacrament at that time.Here is my theological argument:
The Sacrament of Baptism is of water and the Spirit.
John baptized many persons only with water, so his baptism was not the Sacrament.
John’s baptism was a baptism of repentance.
However, when Jesus was baptized by John, the Holy Spirit was sent upon Him by the Father. So this one baptism of John was of water and the Spirit. The other requirement for a valid Baptism is a Trinitarian formula. Since the Father spoke and sent the Spirit uppon the Son, the requirement that a valid Baptism be Trinitarian is fulfilled. Nothing else is lacking. All that the Church teaches is necessary and sufficient for a valid Sacrament of Baptism was present, therefore, Christ received a valid Sacrament of Baptism.
Jesus did not need to repent, so He had no need of a baptism of repentance.
Jesus did not need to be Baptized with the Sacrament, since His human nature had sanctifying grace from the Incarnation. But it was fitting for Him to receive the Sacrament, so that His human soul would have the indelible character just as all His baptized followers have, and so that He would be an example to us all that we should follow, also receiving Baptism. Furthermore, Baptism is the sign of entrance into the Body of Christ, and so it is fitting for Christ Himself, as the head of the body, so also have receive the same Baptism.
Finally, it is absurd to claim that the baptism received by Jesus, was not the Baptism that is of Jesus. As our high priest, Jesus could not have receive the lesser non-Sacramental baptism of John, but only the full Sacrament that proceeds from His side on the Cross.
ST. 3: 38, A1The baptism of John was not a sacrament properly so called [per se, but a kind of sacramental, preparatory to the baptism of Christ. Consequently, in a way, it belonged to the law of Christ, but not to the law of Moses.
); nor did He ever increase in these gifts or this sanctifying grace. For so to increase would be to become more pleasing to the Divine Majesty; and this were impossible in Christ. Hence St. Luke meant (ii, 52) that Christ showed more and more day after day the effects of grace in His outward bearing.Theologians commonly teach that from the very beginning of His existence, He received the fullness of sanctifying grace and other supernatural gifts (except faith, hope, and the moral virtue of penance
Jesus said …“those who hear you hear me”…and “the gates of hell will not prevail against it (the Church he founded)” etc --he did not then add… “until the 4th century”…“I write you these things about those who would deceive you. As for you, the anointing that you received from him remains in you, so that you do not need anyone to teach you. But his anointing teaches you about everything and is true and not false; just as it taught you, remain in him”
1 John 3:26-27 NAB
I do read the ante-Nicene fathers for validation or nonvalidation of what I am being taught or believe that I am being taught.
Even if one were to accept your premise that knowlege precludes faith. Jesus Christ does not have 100% knowlege of the Father.faith is believing in the face of less than 100% knowledge. At least that is what I understand. Since Jesus was one with the Father, he had 100% knowledge of the Father. Thus faith was unnecessary, and also by definition ‘impossible.’ Jesus could not possess faith, since he would first have needed to be without complete knowledge.
I didn’t mean Jesus had infinite omniscience while on earth. What I meant was that jesus had complete knowledge of the Father’s love and power, so that Jesus was able to trust the Father 100%. The only exception was that brief and horrible moment when Jesus felt abandonment by God " MY GOD WHY HAVE YOU FORSAKEN ME? "Even if one were to accept your premise that knowlege precludes faith. Jesus Christ does not have 100% knowlege of the Father.
He says in the gospel of John that whatever His Father tells him to speak, he speaks. I take that to mean that everything that Jesus ever spoke on earth was initiated by the Father first speaking to him. Jesus had to have faith in the words of his Father to speak the Father’s words to his disciples, to the scribes, the Pharisees, to Herod, to Pontius Pilate, to the crowds and so on.
He also said in the gospel of John that whatever the Father shows him he does. I take that to mean at the time His Father showed him to heal the blind, the leper, the lame, to cast out demons, to raise Lazurus from the dead, Jesus Christ had to have faith in his Father before he accomplished these miracles.
Finally, Jesus says that no one knows the day or the hour when the Son of Man will return, not he, nor the angels, but only the Father in heaven.
Maybe this is where we are misunderstanding each other. If one was to do a Hebrew word study on faith, one would find that the word is also translated trust, trustworthy and so on. Most dictionaries will interchange the two words as being the same…I didn’t mean Jesus had infinite omniscience while on earth. What I meant was that jesus had complete knowledge of the Father’s love and power, so that Jesus was able to trust the Father 100%. The only exception was that brief and horrible moment when Jesus felt abandonment by God " MY GOD WHY HAVE YOU FORSAKEN ME? "
At any other time, Jesus had 100% trust, because no doubt existed, due to the unique relationship Jesus had with the Father.