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YosefYosep
Guest
As God incarnate, was Jesus’s free will perhaps violated by his own omniscience? I may be overt thinking the issue, but it has been on my mind recently.
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Ad_Orientem
Guest
Yes, he really did. St. Thomas writes (S.T. III, 18, art. 4):
Whether there was free-will in Christ?
Objection 2: Christ was certain of everything. Hence there was no counsel and consequently no free-will in Christ.
Objection 3. Further, free-will is indifferent. But Christ’s will was determined to good, since He could not sin; as stated above (15, 1,2). Hence there was no free-will in Christ.
On the contrary, It is written (Isaiah 7:15): “He shall eat butter and honey, that He may know to refuse the evil and to choose the good,” which is an act of the free-will. Therefore there was free-will in Christ.
Reply to Objection 2: Choice presupposes counsel; yet it follows counsel only as determined by judgment. For what we judge to be done, we choose, after the inquiry of counsel, as is stated (Ethic. iii, 2,3). Hence if anything is judged necessary to be done, without any preceding doubt or inquiry, this suffices for choice. Therefore it is plain that doubt or inquiry belong to choice not essentially, but only when it is in an ignorant nature.
Reply to Objection 3: The will of Christ, though determined to good, is not determined to this or that good. Hence it pertains to Christ, even as to the blessed, to choose with a free-will confirmed in good.
Whether there was free-will in Christ?
Objection 2: Christ was certain of everything. Hence there was no counsel and consequently no free-will in Christ.
Objection 3. Further, free-will is indifferent. But Christ’s will was determined to good, since He could not sin; as stated above (15, 1,2). Hence there was no free-will in Christ.
On the contrary, It is written (Isaiah 7:15): “He shall eat butter and honey, that He may know to refuse the evil and to choose the good,” which is an act of the free-will. Therefore there was free-will in Christ.
Reply to Objection 2: Choice presupposes counsel; yet it follows counsel only as determined by judgment. For what we judge to be done, we choose, after the inquiry of counsel, as is stated (Ethic. iii, 2,3). Hence if anything is judged necessary to be done, without any preceding doubt or inquiry, this suffices for choice. Therefore it is plain that doubt or inquiry belong to choice not essentially, but only when it is in an ignorant nature.
Reply to Objection 3: The will of Christ, though determined to good, is not determined to this or that good. Hence it pertains to Christ, even as to the blessed, to choose with a free-will confirmed in good.
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YosefYosep
Guest
Perhaps I have my layman glasses on because I am having a hard time understanding the reply to objection 2.
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Holly3278
Guest
I would think that being omniscient would give someone a greater degree of free will than they ordinarily would have because they’d know more about the potential choices they can make.
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Ad_Orientem
Guest
In fallible human beings, the order is: uncertainty → judgment → choice. But in Christ, there is omniscience → judgment → choice. St. Thomas is saying that the latter is no less a real choice, because the fact that it involves judgment is enough. Uncertainty does not have to be part of the equation; it only is for us fallible human beings.
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Holly3278
Guest
I am just wondering if omniscience would mean that Jesus Christ has even more free will since He knows everything and therefore can make a fully informed decision?
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YosefYosep
Guest
Ah okay! Thanks for clearing that up. Is it possible, however, that Jesus knew from the beginning of his human existence what choices he would make? Would this in any affect his free will?
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Linusthe2nd
Guest
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