Did Jesus use unleavened bread?

[ematouk]

Hay Ghosty,

I think you may have missed what I was saying. Jesus did many things contrary to the culture of his time, one can not appeal to his cultural norms as evidence that Jesus used unleavened bread in the Eucharist - even if there was more convincing evidence then what you present.

But regardless of whether Jesus used leavened or unleavened bread in the last supper - we are not supposed to be repeating what Jesus did at the last supper anyways in a literal sense. We “do this in rememberance of Me” by participating in the eternal supper.

If the Orthodox or even the entire Eastern Church was remotely concerned with repeating the action of Jesus at the last supper literally, then church would be an “upper room” not a building with icons of the Saints, we would not pray for the Holy Spirit to come down upon the bread and wine and make it the body and blood of the Lord - we would merely say “this is My body… this is My blood”. We would not skew the bread and say the various preperation prayers before partaking of the body and blood of the Lord. We would definitely not cross ourselves before partaking of the Eucharist - crossing ourselves didnt exist in the days of Christ’s Earthly life. We probably wouldnt have the Eucharist in a liturgy, after all Christ didnt have the Last supper in the liturgy.

Yes, these things are confirmed by the actions of the Apostles, but this just confirms they were not merely repeating what Christ did - they were participating in the eternal supper.

If we are participating in the eternal supper it does not matter whether we use leavened or unleavened bread. But in my perspective leavened bread has a much deeper symbolism, while the unleavened bread links to mere repetition of the Lord’s actions (which may not even be true).

As a side note, do the Byzantine Catholics use leavened or unleavened bread?

God bless.

 

[Ghosty]

I think you may have missed what I was saying. Jesus did many things contrary to the culture of his time, one can not appeal to his cultural norms as evidence that Jesus used unleavened bread in the Eucharist - even if there was more convincing evidence then what you present.

I got the point, I just disagree that we can appeal to His occaisional disobedience to human law to infere an unattested break with Divine ordinance on how to celebrate the Passover. Even if it’s viewed as human ordinance, there’s no reason to believe He went out of his way to violate it for no purpose whatsover; if there was a purpose, it would have been recorded that He used leavened bread when there wasn’t any in Jerusalem at the time. The logical conclusion would be to assume He used what was available, and followed the custom of His people, unless there was explicit reason not to (as there was in the cases of the Samaritan and healing on the Sabbath).

But regardless of whether Jesus used leavened or unleavened bread in the last supper - we are not supposed to be repeating what Jesus did at the last supper anyways in a literal sense. We “do this in rememberance of Me” by participating in the eternal supper.

That is the Latin belief as well. They just do so using unleavened bread. Also, the reason for using unleavened bread is not merely imitation of Christ’s use (though that certainly plays a part), but primarily because unleavened bread is the bread of purity, and it represents Christ’s sinlessness and our purification in Grace by the Eucharist.

In explaining this, Latin theologians (St. Thomas Aquinas uses this in the Summa Theologica to explain the practice, for instance) have often cited 1 Corinthians 5:

6]
Your boasting is not good. Do you not know that a little leaven leavens the whole lump?

7] Cleanse out the old leaven that you may be a new lump, as you really are unleavened. For Christ, our paschal lamb, has been sacrificed.
8] Let us, therefore, celebrate the festival, not with the old leaven, the leaven of malice and evil, but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth.
9]

St. Paul’s words are not understood to be a prohibition against using leavened bread (nor are they understood to even be refering to the Eucharist specifically), but they are used to express the meaning of the use of unleavened bread. This meaning is just as significant and deep as the understanding of leaven representing the Risen Christ, and Divinity lifting up humanity.

With this Scriptural understanding of the meaning of unleavened bread, we can’t at all say that the Latin tradition is merely trying to imitate the direct actions of Christ.

We probably wouldnt have the Eucharist in a liturgy, after all Christ didnt have the Last supper in the liturgy.

That depends on whether or not the the Last Supper was a Passover meal or not. The Passover is a Liturgy, after all. A good evaluation of the significance of the Last Supper (and the drink of spoiled wine Christ received on the Cross just before dying), I recommend checking out Scott Hahn’s “Lamb’s Supper”. One of the interesting points is that the Passover Seder is closed with a drink of wine, which Christ rejected on the way to the Cross, but accepted (and even requested) just before His death. The significance of drinking the wine (when he didn’t drink the last cup with the Apostles at the Last Supper) and saying “it is accomplished” has amazing and beautiful significance regarding the “New Passover”, assuming of course that the Last Supper was a Seder.

That’s all a bit off-topic, but it makes for an interesting study in itself.

As a side note, do the Byzantine Catholics use leavened or unleavened bread?

We use leavened bread. Ironically, Rome has always adamantly insisted that the Byzantine Churches continue using leavened bread and not switch to unleavened. It’s not a controversy in the Catholic Church.

Peace and God bless!

 

[jprioli]

Off-topic, but artos doesn’t mean “leavened bread”, it means “bread”.

Native speakers of Greek understand it to mean "leavened bread."

How many native speakers are there of Koine in A.D. 2008?

Regards,
Joe

 

[prodromos]

Refering only to unleavened bread, it uses the term artos.

It says “azimon artos”. If it just said “artos” it would imply leavened bread.

John

 

[prodromos]

How many native speakers are there of Koine in A.D. 2008?

It is the language of the Church in Greece. New hymns commemorating recently canonized saints are written in Koine. The bible readings are in Koine. For a Greek who didn’t grow up in the Church it might be a little difficult to follow at times, but for those raised in the Church it is easily understood.

John

 

[Ghosty]

It says “azimon artos”. If it just said “artos” it would imply leavened bread.

John

The point is that is uses artos. In Exodus 25:30 it uses artos in reference to the same bread, without the mention of unleavened.

Peace and God bless!

 

[Dee_Dee_King]

maybe the fact that the gospel accounts are not clear which bread type was used is indicating that the writers of the gospels did not think it was important other than the fact that it was bread. or perhaps there were different apostolic traditions which were equally.

leavened bread may have been introduced when the faithful brought bread from home to church for the priest to concecrate during mass.

it’s interesting that when protestant parishes become western rite orthodox, they are forced to use leavened bread that looks unleavened. i guess we could call this a byzantination in the liturgy.

 

[AMDGtoo]

Oh, I must make a copy of this thread. For weeks now our Latin Rite parish “sister” has been putting notes in the parish bulletin about how the bread for Communion should be leavened and that that’s the way the Church did it in history. (Notwithstanding the fact that I’ve received Communion in a Byzantine Rite, and they do use leavened bread which isn’t crumbly, I keep wondering how long it’s going to be before we have a “crumbly” Communion. )

 

[Marsha_Adams]

Oh, I must make a copy of this thread. For weeks now our Latin Rite parish “sister” has been putting notes in the parish bulletin about how the bread for Communion should be leavened and that that’s the way the Church did it in history. (Notwithstanding the fact that I’ve received Communion in a Byzantine Rite, and they do use leavened bread which isn’t crumbly, I keep wondering how long it’s going to be before we have a “crumbly” Communion. )

In the words of the great Vinnie Barbarino “Oh, I’m so confused!” By Latin Rite parish “sister” are you referring to a Roman Catholic nun? If the answer is yes, I am even more confused. Why would she be putting notes in the parish bulletin contrary to Church law? I don’t care if the the historical church used peanutbutter filled oreos, the current law in the Latin rite is “water and wheat” as being the only lawful ingredients in the host.

 

[AMDGtoo]

:By Latin Rite parish “sister” are you referring to a Roman Catholic nun?

Yes. She’s the pastoral associate.

 

[Marsha_Adams]

Yes. She’s the pastoral associate.

My personal opinion, fire her and hire a Catholic.

 

[Aramis]

it’s interesting that when protestant parishes become western rite orthodox, they are forced to use leavened bread that looks unleavened. i guess we could call this a byzantination in the liturgy.

The whole WRO liturgy is a mess of Byzantifications and Latinizations. Mind you, it’s still got the requisite canon, and the requisite teachings… but still, it’s kind of like a mirror of what the FSSJ seem to want: a hybrid liturgy.

ANyway… it’s highly likely that the bread used was unleavened. It’s also clear from the early rubrics that both were used in the liturgy.

 

[Christy74]

belgianwaffles9:
Hi Belgianwaffles9!

In reading this post starting at page 3 working back to page 1 reading about whether it was unleavened or leavened bread to be used for the Eucharist and then seeing your name “Belgian Waffles” to took me by surprise for a moment I thought “Oh good Lord what Church has started using Belgian Waffles for the Eucharist!?!”

LOL

Thanks for the giggle!

 

[belgianwaffles9]

Hi Belgianwaffles9!

In reading this post starting at page 3 working back to page 1 reading about whether it was unleavened or leavened bread to be used for the Eucharist and then seeing your name “Belgian Waffles” to took me by surprise for a moment I thought “Oh good Lord what Church has started using Belgian Waffles for the Eucharist!?!”

LOL

Thanks for the giggle!

Haha! Unfortunately, under Cardinal Daneels, the recently retired but as yet unreplaced Primate of Belgium, such a thing would not be unexpected.

 

[muzikman]

This is some really good discussion

In summary I feel like we do not know for certain if the bread was leavened or unleavened.

However, in trying to reconcile the synoptic gospels regarding the “Last Supper” or “Passover Seder”, there are multiple discrepancies that arise. However, this article reviews the Greek, takes into account the Jewish culture, and makes a coherent story between all of the gospels regarding the Last Supper.

IMO, it is important for Christians to be able to reconcile the accounts. This also places the death of Jesus at the same time the lambs were being slaughtered. Quite fitting!

Someone also asked about participating in a service that included Matzah. This is can be experienced in a Messianic Jewish synagogue.

Shalom!

 

[jimmy]

I also like the use of uleavened bread as Jesus used.

Actually, if you read the accounts of the Mystical Supper in the original Greek, you will see that Our Lord took ARTOS, which always means LEAVENED bread.

And in my mission work, where the Church would have to be packed up and transported to various sites in cardboard boxes, I’ve been to Liturgy in some rather strange sites, including an art class room and a dental lab.

I went to an Antiochene Orthodox Church and I was talking to the priest. He mentioned this about ‘Artos’, plus he was talking about the Aramaic word for the type of bread. I can’t recall the word in the Aramaic but it designated a specific type of bread, which is leavened. The word is a play on words with the word for ‘flesh’ in Aramaic. I think he mentioned that the bread is called flesh bread I think. He showed us one of the loaves of bread (the lamb) which they would consecrate at the liturgy and it was like a Syrian bread that is raised.

 

[jimmy]

Off-topic, but artos doesn’t mean “leavened bread”, it means “bread”. The same word is used in the Septuagint for unleavened sacrificial bread.

What’s more, there was no leavened bread around at the time of the Last Supper; even if it occurred the night before Passover, all leavened bread would have beend destroyed, locked away, or given to Gentiles the day before Passover, as per Jewish religious practice. There’s no plausible way for the Last Supper to have used leavened bread.

I don’t see why it is implausable for it to be leavened if it was the day before the passover; it is still permissable to eat leavened bread the day before.

 

[Ghosty]

I don’t see why it is implausable for it to be leavened if it was the day before the passover; it is still permissable to eat leavened bread the day before.

Chametz, or leaven, is typically always cleared out the day before Passover because the preparation for the seder will be taking place during the day time before the actual Passover meal.

Peace and God bless!

 

[Addai]

Of course the issue of what bread should be used could easily be based on the Apostolic Tradition of what took place in the 40 days before the Ascension then anything that actually happened on the day of Maunday Thursday.

I suppose if this was vital to our faith the Didache would have spellled it out.

 

[Jenova]

Is there any historical records saying that the early church used unleavened bread?
I’m in a discussion with a friend from Byzantine Orthodox, and he keeps saying that according to what is written in their church, the early church had always used leaven one. Though I haven’t had a chance to ask in which documents it is written. With this reason, he said that it was the Latin Church who betrayed the orthodox faith by using unleavened bread.