C
ConstantineTG
Guest
The Catholic Church view is leavened or unleavened doesn’t matter. Just follow the liturgical traditions of your Rite. So as Catholics we shouldn’t be concerned with the question which bread Jesus used at the Last Supper. If you’re in a Byzantine Catholic parish, its leavened. If you are in a Roman Catholic parish, its unleavened. Not sure about the Orientals, but when I attended a Chaldean Holy Qurbana, they used the same unleavened hosts used in RC parishes.Is there any historical records saying that the early church used unleavened bread?
I’m in a discussion with a friend from Byzantine Orthodox, and he keeps saying that according to what is written in their church, the early church had always used leaven one. Though I haven’t had a chance to ask in which documents it is written. With this reason, he said that it was the Latin Church who betrayed the orthodox faith by using unleavened bread.
To add, in cases of extreme necessity, a RC priest can celebrate Mass with leavened bread. Say if you are in a cruise ship in the middle of the ocean and ran out of unleavened hosts. The RC Church sees leavened bread as illicit during normal celebrations, but not invalid.
I wonder what the Byzantine view is? Can anyone share if unleavened bread can be used in the Divine Liturgy in rare and extreme circumstances?