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EphelDuath
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Jesus says, “take this, all of you,” which would include Judas. However, because he sold Jesus out, wasn’t Judas in a state of mortal sin?
Yes.Jesus says, “take this, all of you,” which would include Judas. However, because he sold Jesus out, wasn’t Judas in a state of mortal sin?
Er, betrayal of the Lord to His enemies?What mortal sin did Judas commit and when did he commit it?
It is interesting that Aquinas insists that Christ did not give His glorified body in the Eucharist, but many Catholics today insist otherwise.
Do Catholics insist that He gave His Glorified body at the First Eucharist? I’ve never heard that claim. He gives His Glorified body to us in the Eucharist NOW, but He didn’t have a Glorified body yet then.It is interesting that Aquinas insists that Christ did not give His glorified body in the Eucharist, but many Catholics today insist otherwise.
But that is OT. We can move along…
Even an RC giant like Aquinas would agree with me.Not true. There is no record of this
Glorified refers to a very specific state in Catholic theology, namely the state of the body after Resurrection when it becomes dominated by the spirit rather than the matter. It is therefore able to pass through solid objects, not suffer damage, doesn’t require food to live (though it can certainly eat and enjoy food), and move about anywhere it likes at will. Christ was not Glorified in this way until after His Resurrection, and we will not be Glorified in that way until after ours.Gosty, I would imagine that if you can turn bread and wine into your body and blood, that there was something glorified about that body and blood. How could non-glorified flesh come from the Eucharist? To me it seems like a contradiction of terms![]()
More “free will” on Judas’ part? Should he have known that to take Christ’s body would be further condemnation? Maybe it was fitting that he would take it, since “it would be better for that man if he had never been born.”The rule against receiving the Eucharist when in mortal sin is a rule of the Church to protect the sinner. Those who receive the Eucharist in mortal sin “eat and drink condemnation”, and are judged even more harshly than they would have been otherwise. Christ simply allowed Judas to eat and drink his own condemnation, just as He allowed him to carry out his other wicked deeds.
Peace and God bless!
But, as Atemi pointed out, if Judas received the Eucharist of his own free will despite his state of sin, Christ gave it to him knowing of his sin, which would be sinful.More “free will” on Judas’ part? Should he have known that to take Christ’s body would be further condemnation? Maybe it was fitting that he would take it, since “it would be better for that man if he had never been born.”
Now I’m intrigued. This particular question has never come to mind before.
Thanks for the response.![]()
It wouldn’t necessarily be a sin to give someone Communion who you know is in mortal sin. There may be Canon Laws against it, but it’s not an innately immoral thing to do, and there are circumstances in which you would be expected to.But, as Atemi pointed out, if Judas received the Eucharist of his own free will despite his state of sin, Christ gave it to him knowing of his sin, which would be sinful.
You provided a link to thisYes.
Judas was at the Table.
The record shows that Jesus served Judas the Eucharist when He knew Judas was in a state of mortal sin. The problem is that the RCC does teach that to knowingly serve a person in mortal sin the Eucharist is to commit a sacrilege.
I have not yet heard this adequately explained.
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Reply to Objection 2. The wickedness of Judas was known to Christ as God; but it was unknown to Him, after the manner in which men know it. Consequently, Christ did not repel Judas from Communion; so as to furnish an example that such secret sinners are not to be repelled by other priests.
Yes.You provided a link to this
Quote:
Reply to Objection 2. The wickedness of Judas was known to Christ as God; but it was unknown to Him, after the manner in which men know it. Consequently, Christ did not repel Judas from Communion; so as to furnish an example that such secret sinners are not to be repelled by other priests.
Tell us what the adequate explanation is and we’ll give it to you.Like I said earlier, I still have not heard this adequately explained, and this includes Aquinas as well.