Did Mary & Joseph have children?

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Sending me to a Catholic link in order to ‘prove’ a Catholic belief is circular reasoning. Of course it’s going to attempt to persuade a person that the ‘perpetual virginity of Mary’ is Biblical. That’s not objective. What I have been attempting to do is NOT try to convince people of ‘my interpretation’ of Scripture. Rather, if everyone here is honest, I am using the only thing that we can all agree on - Scripture, which we can rely on to tell us whether or not Jesus did or did not have half-brothers & half-sisters. And, what we can agree on, even if we hold to Catholic tradition, if we look to the Bible verses about the ‘brother & sisters’ of Jesus & put them together properly (which is why I posted the verses to make it simple), it is clear that they were indeed Jesus’ half-brothers & half-sisters. Yet, no one seems to be doing this, & by not doing this, is why people are still holding to this false belief in the ‘perpetual virginity of Mary.’
“And indeed it was a virgin, about to marry once for all after her delivery, who gave birth to Christ, in order that each title of sanctity might be fulfilled in Christ’s parentage, by means of a mother who was both virgin, and wife of one husband. Again, when He is presented as an infant in the temple, who is it who receives Him into his hands? Who is the first to recognize Him in spirit? A man just and circumspect,’ and of course no digamist, (which is plain) even (from this consideration), lest (otherwise) Christ should presently be more worthily preached by a woman, an aged widow, and the wife of one man;’ who, living devoted to the temple, was (already) giving in her own person a sufficient token what sort of persons ought to be the adherents to the spiritual temple,–that is, the Church. Such eye-witnesses the Lord in infancy found; no different ones had He in adult age." Tertullian, On Monogamy, 8 (A.D. 213).

“For if Mary, as those declare who with sound mind extol her, had no other son but Jesus, and yet Jesus says to His mother, Woman, behold thy son,’ and not Behold you have this son also,’ then He virtually said to her, Lo, this is Jesus, whom thou didst bear.’ Is it not the case that every one who is perfect lives himself no longer, but Christ lives in him; and if Christ lives in him, then it is said of him to Mary, Behold thy son Christ.’ What a mind, then, must we have to enable us to interpret in a worthy manner this work, though it be committed to the earthly treasure-house of common speech, of writing which any passer-by can read, and which can be heard when read aloud by any one who lends to it his bodily ears?” Origen, Commentary on John, I:6 (A.D. 232).

“Therefore let those who deny that the Son is from the Father by nature and proper to His Essence, deny also that He took true human flesh of Mary Ever-Virgin; for in neither case had it been of profit to us men, whether the Word were not true and naturally Son of God, or the flesh not true which He assumed.” Athanasius, Orations against the Arians, II:70 (A.D. 362).

"And when he had taken her, he knew her not, till she had brought forth her first-born Son.’ He hath here used the word till,’ not that thou shouldest suspect that afterwards he did know her, but to inform thee that before the birth the Virgin was wholly untouched by man. But why then, it may be said, hath he used the word, till’? Because it is usual in Scripture often to do this, and to use this expression without reference to limited times. For so with respect to the ark likewise, it is said, The raven returned not till the earth was dried up.’ And yet it did not return even after that time. And when discoursing also of God, the Scripture saith, From age until age Thou art,’ not as fixing limits in this case. And again when it is preaching the Gospel beforehand, and saying, In his days shall righteousness flourish, and abundance of peace, till the moon be taken away,’ it doth not set a limit to this fair part of creation. So then here likewise, it uses the word “till,” to make certain what was before the birth, but as to what follows, it leaves thee to make the inference.” John Chrysostom, Gospel of Matthew, V:5 (A.D. 370).

“Thus, what it was necessary for thee to learn of Him, this He Himself hath said; that the Virgin was untouched by man until the birth; but that which both was seen to be a consequence of the former statement, and was acknowledged, this in its turn he leaves for thee to perceive; namely, that not even after this, she having so become a mother, and having been counted worthy of a new sort of travail, and a child-bearing so strange, could that righteous man ever have endured to know her. For if he had known her, and had kept her in the place of a wife, how is it that our Lord commits her, as unprotected, and having no one, to His disciple, and commands him to take her to his own home? How then, one may say, are James and the others called His brethren? In the same kind of way as Joseph himself was supposed to be husband of Mary. For many were the veils provided, that the birth, being such as it was, might be for a time screened. Wherefore even John so called them, saying, For neither did His brethren believe in Him.’ John Chrysostom, Gospel of Matthew, V:5 (A.D. 370).
 
I DID!!! GO…TO…MY…ORIGINAL…POST…AND…WRITE…OUT…THE…FAMILY…TREE…OF…JESUS…USING…THE…BIBLE…PASSAGES…I…PROVIDED…IN…MY…ORIGINAL…POST.

I don’t know how much more simple I can say this. I can’t very well write out a family tree. That requires DRAWING PICTURES with links from husband to wife to children, which includes sons & daughters, then linking one family unit to another. In order to do that YOU have to do it…I can’t do it for you using this type of forum.
:rotfl::rotfl::rotfl:
I can see you’re headed rapidly into meltdown mode.
Truth be told young man. we don’t have to DO anything. You made the charge, the monkey is on your back to prove it. Throwing out a few Bible verses*** twisted into what you would like them to say ***doesn’t prove anything.
The Bible is a Catholic Book. It must be read in light of 2000 years of tradition, not some Johnny-come-lately preacher who thinks he is wiser than the ages.
Actually your first sentence reveals how frustrating this must be for you. Has it ever occurred to you that you’re wrong? That your preacher is wrong? That whatever fundamentalist church you belong to is wrong?
That frustration could be an indication the Holy Spirit is tugging on your heart, calling you back home. Your Baptism you had as a child can never be wiped away. It has an imprint on you that is there forever. You can can get re-Baptized a thousand times, THAT was the one that counted. Telling you you need to come home, back to the Church Christ founded.
 
I DID!!! GO…TO…MY…ORIGINAL…POST…AND…WRITE…OUT…THE…FAMILY…TREE…OF…JESUS…USING…THE…BIBLE…PASSAGES…I…PROVIDED…IN…MY…ORIGINAL…POST.
And as I keep telling you, in order for the information in your OP to be correct, your interpretations and conclusions from the verses provided have to be correct also. How do I, or anyone on this forum, know that your conclusions and interpretations are 100 percent valid and correct? We can’t simply take your word for it because that would be circular reasoning also.

However, your conclusions and interpretations are not accurate.

Matthew 13:54-57 says James is a brother of the Lord, correct? Well, as Paul tells us in Galatians, this James “the brother of the Lord” is also an apostle. There were only two apostles named James: one was a son of Zebedee, the other was a son of Alphaeus. Since they were not sons of Mary and Joseph, neither of these people named James can be a sibling of Jesus Christ.

Oh, but wait! You’re going to try and counter with “but the James in Galatians is never paired in Scripture as the brother of Simon, Joseph, and Jude. Therefore, the James in Galatians is not the same James in Matthew 13:54-57,” right? Sorry, but that is a cop-out answer. Why does James have to appear in Scripture as being identified as “the brother of Judas, Simon, and Joseph” in order to be the same person? It doesn’t quite work like that. Scripture doesn’t place much focus on siblings as far as heritage goes; it usually lists people as “James the son of Zebedee,” not “James the brother of Simon.” There are few, if any, instances in Scripture where the latter is listed.

Your cop-out answer is an illogical conclusion based on the fact that James was not actually a sibling of Jesus, and thus disproves your entire claim.
 
Actually, if you read the Bible verses I provided, & write out a ‘family tree’ of Jesus, you’ll see that not only was John, the disciple that Jesus loved, who He entrusted His mother to, you’ll find that John was Jesus’ cousin. So, John was not ‘unrelated’ to Mary, but rather, John was Mary’s nephew. Jesus entrusted His mother to John, because His half-brothers did not believe Him (John 7:3-5; c.f. - Psalm 69:8 - an OT prophecy that tells us the Messiah’s mother would have CHILDREN - plural). Jesus willed that His mother would be cared by not only a family member, but also a believer.
Why should anyone entertain your personal opinions, since you violate the bible in arriving at them?

King James Version (KJV)
20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.2 Peter 1:20.

You will wander in confusion until and unless you stop violating this core bible principle.
 
I know this is my first day on the board but is this seriously a question?
 
It seems that they’ve been around for forever.:whistle: They are a bit of an irratent but we love them anyway. :okpeople:
 
I know this is my first day on the board but is this seriously a question?
Yeah, there are people who won’t sleep tonight until they get the answer.
😉
😃
(Please Note: This uploaded content is no longer available.)
It seems that they’ve been around for forever.:whistle: They are a bit of an irratent but we love them anyway. :okpeople:
Nah…just about the last 500 years or so actually.http://i66.photobucket.com/albums/h244/corona_stellarum/Smilies/3.gif
 
it’s funny because in the orignal question he says not to use Catholic dogma to prove Jesus didn’t have siblings, only Scripture because dogma isn’t inspired. well the Church was founded by Christ, who is divine, and our Church was the only Church for 1500 years. the Church is also guided by the Holy Spirit, so any dogma that is written is directly inspired by God. The pope is infallible meaning he can’t err on matters concerning the faith, because he too is inspired by the Spirit. there have even been two events in history where a pope was going to speak a lie about the Faith but the HS prevented him by making him mute. so obviously he is inspired by the Spirit. yet our dogmas arent authentic?

keep in mind no where in the Bible does it say that the Bible is the ONLY source of Truth. No where. i will be amazed if our friend bornAgain gives me a line that says, “The Bible is the only legitimate source of Truth.” Not Sacred Tradition, not any dogma.

If one makes a family tree you will not find that Jesus had 6 siblings. that is the most outlandish thing i have ever heard of. :confused: i have seen a complete family tree of Jesus completed by Biblical scholars by using the Bible, and not one sibling was on there. i saw cousins of Our Lord, but no siblings. in fact, i believe the scholars were not even Catholic but Christian, and they never said Jesus had brothers

If one wishes to degrade Our Blessed Mother, they always attack her virginity, because if she had other children, then she is less important and more lowly. 😦
 
padrepio_2012;9383463there have even been two events in history where a pope was going to speak a lie about the Faith but the HS prevented him by making him mute. so obviously he is inspired by the Spirit. yet our dogmas arent authentic? said:
Great post!

I found this part interesting. Can you tell me where I can find more information on this. I’m not doubting you, I would like to read more about it.
 
The purpose of typing in all caps & ellipses inbetween the words, was to visually show frustration, that you keep asking me to give you evidence from the Bible, & I do, but won’t read it for whatever reason.

Even if I were to provide you a chart, you’re response would be, “well, that’s just ‘your interpretation.’” The reason I wanted you to do it, is so that you YOURSELF could write out the family tree of Jesus YOURSELF, using Scripture, to see that Jesus did indeed have half-brothers & half-sisters. However, the wikipedia family tree you provided does show that Jesus’ brothers & sisters were sons & daughters of Joseph & Mary, which is not only supported by Josephus & Eusebius, but also from Scripture…but I’m sure you won’t even believe Scripture, which is why ex-Catholics & non-Catholics accuse Catholics of trumping Scripture with tradition, if tradition is at odds with Scripture. So, even if I did give you a diagram that is solidly supported by Scripture that Jesus had half-brothers & half-sisters, you wouldn’t believe it anyway, so what is the point in providing you one? Your mind has already been made up ahead of time.
 
Those who deny Mary’s perpetual virginity most commonly refer to two texts:

Matthew 13:55-56: Is not this the carpenter’s son? Is not his mother called Mary? And are not his brethren James and Joseph and Simon and Judas? And are not all of his sisters with us?

Matthew 1:24-25: And Joseph rising up from sleep, did as the angel of the Lord had commanded him, and took unto him his wife. And he knew her not till she brought forth her firstborn (Gk. prototokon) son: and he called his name Jesus. (Douay-Rheims)

A surface reading of these passages seems problematic. If Jesus had “brothers” and “sisters,” would not Mary have had other children? If Jesus was Mary’s “firstborn,” would there not be at least a second-born? And if “he knew her not till,” did he not then “know her” at some point? We’ll begin with Matthew 13:55-56.

First, we must understand that the term brother has a wide semantic range in Scripture. It can mean a uterine brother, an extended relative, or even a spiritual brother. In Genesis 13:8 and 14:12, we read of one example of brother being used to describe an extended relationship: Abraham and Lot. Though they were actually uncle and nephew, they called one another “brother.” Moreover, in the New Testament, Jesus told us to call one another “brothers” in Matthew 23:8. The passage obviously does not mean to suggest that all Christians have the same physical mother.

Second, if we examine more closely the example of James, one of these four “brothers of the Lord” mentioned in Matthew 13:55, we discover him to be a cousin or some other relative of Jesus rather than a uterine brother. For example, Galatians 1:18-19 informs us: “Then after three years I [Paul] went up to Jerusalem to visit Cephas, and remained with him fifteen days. But I saw none of the other apostles except James the Lord’s brother.”

Notice, the “James” of whom Paul was speaking was both a “brother of the Lord” and an “apostle.” There are two apostles named James among the 12. The first James is revealed to be a “son of Zebedee.” He most likely would not be the “James” referred to because according to Acts 12:1-2 he was martyred very early on. Even if it was him, his father was named Zebedee, not Joseph.

Paul more likely is referring to the second James who was an apostle, according to Luke 6:15-16. This James is revealed to have a father named Alphaeus, not Joseph. Thus, James the apostle and Jesus were not uterine brothers. Easy enough. Some will argue, however, that this “James” was not an apostle or that he was not one of the original 12. Though this is a possibility—others in the New Testament, such as Barnabas in Acts 14, are referred to as “apostles” in a looser sense—the argument from Scripture is weak. When Paul wrote about going “up to Jerusalem” to see Peter, he was writing about an event that occurred many years earlier, shortly after he had converted. He was basically going up to the apostles to receive approval lest he “should be running or had run in vain.” It would be more likely he would have here been speaking about “apostles” (proper), or “the twelve.”

But for those inclined to argue the point, the Catechism of the Catholic Church uses another line of reasoning:
The Church has always understood these passages as not referring to other children of the Virgin Mary. In fact James and Joseph, “brothers of Jesus,” are the sons of another Mary, a disciple of Christ, whom St. Matthew significantly calls “the other Mary.” They are close relations of Jesus, according to an Old Testament expression. (CCC 500)
The Catechism here refers to the fact that 14 chapters after we find the “brothers” of the Lord listed as “James, Joseph, Simon and Judas,” we find “James and Joseph” mentioned again, but this time their mother is revealed as being named Mary, but not Mary, the Mother of Jesus. We can conclude that “James and Joseph” are “brothers” of Jesus, but they are not uterine brothers.

But what about Matthew 1:24-25, and the claim Jesus was Mary’s “firstborn son” and that Joseph “knew her not until” Christ was born? Does Matthew here teach that Mary had other children?

Exodus 13:1-2 reveals something very important about the firstborn in Israel: “The Lord said to Moses, ‘Consecrate to me all the firstborn; whatever is the first to open the womb among the people of Israel, both of man and beast, is mine.’”

The “firstborn” were not given the title because there was a “second-born.” They were called “firstborn” at birth. Jesus being “firstborn” does not require that more siblings be born after him.
 
Scripture’s statement that Joseph “knew [Mary] not until she brought forth her firstborn” would not necessarily mean they did “know” each other after she brought forth Jesus. Until is often used in Scripture as part of an idiomatic expression similar to our own usage in English. I may say to you, “Until we meet again, God bless you.” Does that necessarily mean after we meet again, God curse you? By no means. A phrase like this is used to emphasize what is being described before the until is fulfilled. It is not intended to say anything about the future beyond that point. Here are some biblical examples:

2 Samuel 6:23: And Michal the daughter of Saul had no child to (until) the day of her death. (Does this mean she had children after she died?)

1 Timothy 4:13: Until I come, attend to the public reading of scripture, to preaching, to teaching. (Does this mean Timothy should stop teaching after Paul comes?)

1 Corinthians 15:25: For he (Christ) must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. (Does this mean Christ’s reign will end? By no means! Luke 1:33 says, “he will reign over the house of Jacob forever and of his kingdom there shall be no end.”)

In recent years, some have argued that because Matthew 1:25 uses the Greek words heos hou for “until” whereas the texts I mentioned above from the New Testament use heos alone, there is a difference in meaning. The argument goes that Heos hou indicates the action of the first clause does not continue. Thus, Mary and Joseph “not having come together” would have ended after Jesus was born.

The problems with this theory begin with the fact that no available scholarship concurs with it. In fact, the evidence proves the contrary. Heos hou and heos are used interchangeably and have the same meaning. Acts 25:21 should suffice to clear up the matter: “But when Paul had appealed to be kept in custody for the decision of the emperor, I commanded him to be held until (Gk. heos hou) I could send him to Caesar.”

Does this text mean that Paul would not be held in custody after he was “sent” to Caesar? Not according to the biblical record. He would be held in custody while in transit (see Acts 27:1) and after he arrived in Rome for a time (see Acts 29:16). The action of the main clause did not cease with heos hou.

Now let’s look at some reasons to believe in Mary’s perpetual virginity. Among the many we could examine, we will briefly consider three:
  1. In Luke 1:34, when Mary was told by the angel Gabriel that she was chosen to be the Mother of the Messiah, she asked the question, literally translated from the Greek, “How shall this be since I know not man?” This question makes no sense unless Mary had a vow of virginity.
When we consider that Mary and Joseph were already “espoused,” according to verse 27 of this same chapter, we understand Mary and Joseph already have what would be akin to a ratified marriage in the New Covenant. They were married. That would mean Joseph would have had the right to the marriage bed. Normally, after the espousal the husband would go off and prepare a home for his new bride and then come and receive her into his home where the union would be consummated. This is precisely why Joseph intended to “divorce her quietly” (Mt 1:19) when he later discovered she was pregnant.

This background is significant because a newly married woman would not ask the question “How shall this be?” She would know—unless, of course, that woman had taken a vow of virginity. Mary believed the message, but wanted to know how this was going to be accomplished. This indicates she was not planning on the normal course of events for her future with Joseph.
  1. In John 19:26, Jesus gave his Mother to the care of John even though by law the next eldest sibling would have the responsibility to care for her. It is unthinkable that Jesus would take his Mother away from his family in disobedience to the law.
Some claim Jesus did this because his brothers and sisters were not there. They had left him. Thus, Jesus committed his Mother to John, who was faithful and present at the foot of the cross. This claim betrays a very low and unbiblical Christology. As John tells us, Jesus “knew all men” (cf. Jn 2:25). If James were his uterine brother, Jesus would have known he would be faithful along with his “brother” Jude. The fact is Jesus had no brothers and sisters, so he had the responsibility, on a human level, to take care of his Mother.
  1. Mary is depicted as the spouse of the Holy Spirit in Scripture. In Luke 1:34, when Mary asks the angel how she will conceive a child, the angel responds: “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; therefore the child to be born will be called holy, the Son of God.”
This is nuptial language hearkening back to Ruth 3:8, where Ruth said to Boaz “spread your skirt over me” when she revealed to him his duty to marry her according to the law of Deuteronomy 25. When Mary became pregnant, Joseph would have been required to divorce her because she would then belong to another (see Dt 24:1-4; Jer 3:1). But when Joseph found out that “the other” was the Holy Spirit, the idea of his having conjugal relations with Mary was not a consideration.

An obvious question remains: Why did St. Joseph then “take [Mary] his wife” according to Matthew 1:24 if she belonged to the Holy Spirit?

The Holy Spirit is Mary’s spouse, but Joseph was her spouse and protector on this earth for at least two obvious reasons. First, as Matthew points out in his genealogy in chapter 1, Joseph was in line to be a successor of David as King of Israel. Thus, if Jesus was to be the true “son of David” and king of Israel (see 2 Sm 7:14, Heb 1:5, Rv 19:16, 22:16), he needed to be the son of Joseph. As the only son of Joseph, even though adopted, he would have been in line for the throne.

Also, in a culture that did not take too kindly to espoused women getting pregnant by someone other than their spouse, Mary would have been in mortal danger. So Joseph became Mary’s earthly spouse and protector as well as the protector of the child Jesus.

catholic.com/magazine/articles/the-case-for-mary’s-perpetual-virginity
 
The purpose of typing in all caps & ellipses inbetween the words, was to visually show frustration, that you keep asking me to give you evidence from the Bible, & I do, but won’t read it for whatever reason.

Even if I were to provide you a chart, you’re response would be, “well, that’s just ‘your interpretation.’” The reason I wanted you to do it, is so that you YOURSELF could write out the family tree of Jesus YOURSELF, using Scripture, to see that Jesus did indeed have half-brothers & half-sisters. However, the wikipedia family tree you provided does show that Jesus’ brothers & sisters were sons & daughters of Joseph & Mary, which is not only supported by Josephus & Eusebius, but also from Scripture…but I’m sure you won’t even believe Scripture, which is why ex-Catholics & non-Catholics accuse Catholics of trumping Scripture with tradition, if tradition is at odds with Scripture. So, even if I did give you a diagram that is solidly supported by Scripture that Jesus had half-brothers & half-sisters, you wouldn’t believe it anyway, so what is the point in providing you one? Your mind has already been made up ahead of time.
Your argument is the Tree. You did not provide it. Therefore, there is no argument.
 
Before answering this question. Please read this explanation to the very end. Also, please do not try to direct me to another Web site. I want to know what YOU think, & when you respond, please base your conclusion using Holy Scripture, NOT the beliefs of church leaders or the early church fathers. I say this, because since Holy Scripture is Inspired (God breathed), then Holy Scripture CAN’T be wrong, because we KNOW it is from God. Thank you in advance, & I look forward to your responses, & encourage you to carefully consider mine. In Christ, Steve.
Steve, I will comply with your request and answers your questions as you ask. First I will give you my short answers:

Did Mary & Joseph have children? NO
Did Jesus have half-brothers & half-sisters? NO

Now let’s move on to the details.
Having been raised Catholic & having studied the Scriptures, I have come to the conclusion that ‘the Word of the Lord’ (the Bible) supports the belief that the ‘brothers & sisters’ of Jesus in Matthew 12:46-50 & Matthew 13:54-57 are Jesus’ half-brothers & sisters, & NOT referring to His disciples, cousins, step-brothers & step-sisters, or ‘spiritual’ brothers & sisters:
What the Protestant deny to the Pope, “infallibility”, you confer upon yourself. You’re infallible according to you, and we have your word confirm it.

Which Scriptures did you read? The original Scriptures in the original language? The Old Greek translation? The Latin Translation? The Old English translation? The modern English translation? What makes you believe you got it right?, specially if you consider this:

“Know this well: no prophecy of Scripture can be handed over to private interpretation” 2 Peter 1:20

“There are, however, some points in them that are difficult to understand, which people who are ignorant and immature in their faith twist, as they do with the rest of the Scriptures, to their own destruction.” 2 Peter 3:16

What sets you apart from all men that these warnings do not apply to you?
First, Matthew 13:54-57 gives us their names: James, Joses (Joseph), Simon, & Judas (Jude). They are clearly brothers, since they are part of a family unit, along with their father, ‘the carpenter’ (Joseph) & Mary, their mother.
The Gospel writers don’t say that James, Joses, Simon and Judas are the SONS of “the carpenter”, only Jesus is mentioned as “the SON of the carpenter”. The Gospel writers don’t say that James, Joses, Simon and Judas are the SONS of the Virgin Mary either, only Jesus is mentioned as Her Son throughout the NT. The four brothers are referred to as “Jesus’ brothers”, and you know that “brother/sister” can mean: “cousin, uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, brother-in-law, sister-in-law, clansmen”. How do you know for sure that Matthew meant blood brothers and not any of the other relationships?
Second, at the cross, Mary the wife of Alphaeus (aka: Clopas), who is the mother of James the Less & Joses (Joseph) are mentioned (Matthew 27:55-56; Mark 15:40; John 19:25-27). James is the son of Alphaeus (Matthew 10:3). However, James & Joseph are never paired in Scripture as ‘brothers’ of Simon & Judas (Jude). So, they are ‘not’ the ‘James & Joseph’ in Matthew 13:54-57.
Your logic of pairing names is flawed. What logic demands that when someone is mentioned in writing, the writer is forced to “attach” all the relatives of that person in the same writing?

James, Joses, Simon and Judas are “paired” in Mark 15:40 and Matthew 13:55, both passages have the four names together, and both describe the same event.

Matthew 27:56 mentions two of the four brothers: James and Joses. Mark 15:47 mentions only one: Joses. Mark 16:1 mentions only one: James. Luke 6:16 has two, Judas and James “paired” as brothers, contrary to your statement that James and Judas were never paired in Scriptures as brothers. Acts 1:13 has two, James and Judas paired again as brothers. Jude 1:1 has two, Jude (Judas) who pairs himself to James as brother. And Simon is paired with the other brothers in Matthew 13:55 and Mark 15:40.

Continues…
 
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