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NotWorthy
Guest
SpiritMeadow, are you calling me a Fundamentalist?
Why do you think that?
Why do you think that?
The death of Moses is not in Genesis.Yeah, I was gonna say… didn’t it talk about Moses death??? How could he write about his own death![]()
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God could have had Moses write on a computer and save it to CD. But He didn’t.Why, Vern, is this? God could certainly have had the author of these books write it so that it is attuned over countless generations.
Nevertheless, the evidence is that there were different authors – and the audiences are different because the various books were written at different times.Moses certainly had enough time to write this stuff. He certainly had the opportunity to learn to write all this stuff. The five books, especially Genesis and Leviticus are certainly written in a different style, because they were written for different purposes. Just as we see different styles in all the four gospels.
Of course, one reason is that it’s different authors, but another reason is because it’s to a different audience.
Vern, are you going to read The Toledoths of Genesis?God could have had Moses write on a computer and save it to CD. But He didn’t.
God could have had the author of Genesis explain Relativity, the Big Bang and nuclear physics. But He didn’t.
You can read the Bible from end to end, and see that the Inspired Writers wrote so people of their own times could understand.
Nevertheless, the evidence is that there were different authors – and the audiences are different because the various books were written at different times.
I have listed several pieces of evidence for multiple authorship and late redaction – for example, multiple versions of some of the most well-known stories, the reference to the Canaanites living in the land, the description of Moses’ funeral, and the highly developed rituals and accoutrements (which are more suited to a city-dwelling people than a nomadic tribe.)
Well, duh!The death of Moses is not in Genesis.
Tell me again of the Canaanites living in the land. The highly developed rituals and accoutrements are for the Levites and their timeless rituals. I don’t see your point in that argument. Are you referring to the fact that the accoutrements were not very portable?I have listed several pieces of evidence for multiple authorship and late redaction – for example, multiple versions of some of the most well-known stories, the reference to the Canaanites living in the land, the description of Moses’ funeral, and the highly developed rituals and accoutrements (which are more suited to a city-dwelling people than a nomadic tribe.)
Let’s start with a simple fact – Moses never reached the Promised Land. He died before the Israelites crossed over the Jordan.Tell me again of the Canaanites living in the land. The highly developed rituals and accoutrements are for the Levites and their timeless rituals. I don’t see your point in that argument. Are you referring to the fact that the accoutrements were not very portable?
sure wasn’t…I wasn’t speaking of anyone in particular.SpiritMeadow, are you calling me a Fundamentalist?
Why do you think that?
Why do you think anyone wants to throw out anything? That would be Luther who wanted to do that. To suggest that all is not self-evident on its face in the bible is not to argue to remove any of it. When you read the bible as science, you have lost its true meaning in the first place.The Bible was assembled by the guiding hand of the Holy Spirit of God. The Church today is guided by the Holy Spirit of God.
Since it’s Open Season on fundamentalists, let me say this. What part of the Bible do you want to throw out? And why?
In Church, after reading from the Gospel, what do you hear: “This is the word of the Lord.” Why is that? Not the word of man but the word of God. “It is written, that man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word of God.” Luke 4:4
God bless,
Ed
OK, so you’ve just proven that Moses didn’t write the end of Exodus. I’m cool with that. It’s commonly accepted that Isaiah didn’t write the end of Isaiah or that John didn’t write the end of John.Let’s start with a simple fact – Moses never reached the Promised Land. He died before the Israelites crossed over the Jordan.
The Torah is rather large. What verses are you referring to?So why did Moses feel it necessary to remind his readers that the Canaanites were then living in the land – as if it were something in the far distant past? That would be appropriate if the redaction occurred hundreds of years after Moses’ death – but not while he was still alive!!
So, are you saying that God didn’t demand these rituals while they were in the wilderness. He waited til they settled in Canaan?The highly-developed rituals and accoutrements are suitable for a sedentary priesthood, not for nomads – which the Israelites were in Moses’ lifetime.
The pericope is question is in** Genesis**.OK, so you’ve just proven that Moses didn’t write the end of Exodus. I’m cool with that. It’s commonly accepted that Isaiah didn’t write the end of Isaiah or that John didn’t write the end of John.
(Genesis 12:6)6 Abram passed through the land as far as the sacred place at Shechem, by the terebinth of Moreh. (The Canaanites were then in the land.)
See above.The Torah is rather large. What verses are you referring to?
Correct – read Leviticus 4:22 and following. It refers to princes – which didn’t exist in Moses’ time. Kings and princes came much later in Jewish history.So, are you saying that God didn’t demand these rituals while they were in the wilderness. He waited til they settled in Canaan?
(Genesis 12:6)
6 Abram passed through the land as far as the sacred place at Shechem, by the terebinth of Moreh. (The Canaanites were then in the land.
Punctuation, including parentheses, did not exist in ancient times. All the punctuation you see in the Bible was added in modern times.I noticed that the sentence in question is in parenthesis. Would that indicate that it was added later on? I notice that several times in the NT. For instance, when John 5:3 is included in the text (and not the footnotes), it seems to always be placed in parenthesis.
The usage is the same as in English. Princes and Kings emerged among the Israelites long after the time of Moses.The only other mention I see of “princes” in the OT is in 2nd Chronicles 21:4 - If you notice, in our idea of “kingdoms”, the princes would be the brothers and sons of Jehoram. Hence, this phrase, “all his brothers and also some of the princes of Israel” would seem redundant. Do the Jews have a different meaning for “prince”, such as someone who is rather powerful?
He said it following Jewist tradition of the day – would you have Him say, “For if you had believed Whoever It Was Who Wrote The Torah, you would have believed me, because he wrote about me?”Vern, what did Jesus mean when he said, “…* For if you had believed Moses, you would have believed me, because he wrote about me*”?