Did Rome leave Orthodox

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What is it that disgusts you? History? I agree. That God didn’t prevent these things from happening? I hope not. So that leaves my characterization that these were chastisements from God. But what is the difference between saying that God allowed it and it was a chastisement? There is no difference - God’s prophets used those terms interchangeably. It was not my intent to offend anyone, just that we accept God’s judgments and learn from them.
 
Luke 65 #7

Here is what I have been referred to some folk from the Eastern Church. Maybe you might know if these Pope’s and Patriarch are under the See of Peter?

Patriarch of Constantinople is His All Holiness, Bartholomew, Archbishop of Constantinople, New Rome and Ecumenical Patriarch ec-patr.org/athp/index.php?lang=en

Pope Theodoros II is the Pope and Patriarch of Alexandria and all of Africa patriarchateofalexandria.com/

Patriarch of Antioch is His All Holiness, Ignatius IV (Hazim) antiochpat.org/

Patriarch of Jerusalem is His All Holiness, Beatitude Patriarch Theophilos III jerusalem-patriarchate.info/

Patriarch of Moscow is His Holiness Kirill mospat.ru/en/the_patriarch/

Patriarch of Serbia is His Holiness Pavle (Stojcevic)

Patriarch of Romania is His Beatitude Daniel patriarhia.ro/en/patriarch/

Patriarch of Bulgaria is His Holiness Maxim bg-patriarshia.bg/photos.php

Patriarch of Georgia is His Holiness Ilia II

The reason I put this question on this post is because under the Other Religions I was getting feed back from mostly Eastern Churches.
Not a single one. They are all part of the Eastern Orthodox Church.
 
About the 10th Century, the Catholic church officially decided to take illegal authority over all dioceses in the West (by forcing them to adopt an illegally altered Nicene Creed as the key decision in that)–many of them were politically dependent on Rome, so they accepted without too much fuss, as it wasn’t upsetting the Status Quo.
This is greatly inaccurate. The Holy Roman Emperor had already forced most of the West to accept the filioque clause before the 10 century, more like the 9th. The BoR didn’t really have much to do with it. As a matter of fact, he resisted this move of the HRE for centuries. Leo III explicitly engraved the original Nicene-Constantinopolitan in stone and placed it in Saint Peter’s square to spite the filioquists. The Pope did not submit (yes I will use this word despite it probably offending some Ultramontanist sentiments here) until 1014 at the coronation Henry II. The promulgation of the filioque was more of a Frankish phenomenon than a Latin one.
 
So God chastised the Orthodox by allowing the vicious torture and murder of millions of innocent, simple Orthodox peasants who were simply following the faith they had inherited for centuries?

Is that really the view you have of God?

Yours in Christ
Joe
I’m not surprised. This is the same deity who poured out the wrath which he had built up against the human race upon his obedient son on the cross.
 
What is it that disgusts you? History? I agree. That God didn’t prevent these things from happening? I hope not. So that leaves my characterization that these were chastisements from God. But what is the difference between saying that God allowed it and it was a chastisement?
History is unfinished. If you are reading tea leaves remember there is always another pour coming.
There is no difference - God’s prophets used those terms interchangeably. It was not my intent to offend anyone, just that we accept God’s judgments and learn from them.
So would you say that Charles V sack of Rome with both Catholic and Lutheran soldiers was a chastisement as well?.. was it Providential?.. did we learn something from it?

The Muslim sack of Rome in 846AD?

The Vandal sack of Rome in 455AD?

The Visigoth sack of Rome in 410AD?

How about the legalization of abortion in Portugal? Is that a chastisement of God because innocent young people are being sacked by their parents around Fatima, and God allows it?

Would you say the Crusader sack and fifty-seven year long pillage of Constantinople 1203/1204AD through 1261AD was a chastisement of God?

What about the Catholic city of Zara which the same Crusaders sacked along the way?

History is not yet finished, if you want to boast over the geographical accident that Rome is in Italy and not in Turkey, and that makes your church somehow more correct… you might as well try it now, because tomorrow no one knows what the circumstances will be for any of us.

And lots of luck trying to convince intelligent inquirers with that line of approach.
 
History is unfinished. If you are reading tea leaves remember there is always another pour coming.
So would you say that Charles V sack of Rome with both Catholic and Lutheran soldiers was a chastisement as well?.. was it Providential?.. did we learn something from it?

The Muslim sack of Rome in 846AD?

The Vandal sack of Rome in 455AD?

The Visigoth sack of Rome in 410AD?

How about the legalization of abortion in Portugal? Is that a chastisement of God because innocent young people are being sacked by their parents around Fatima, and God allows it?

Would you say the Crusader sack and fifty-seven year long pillage of Constantinople 1203/1204AD through 1261AD was a chastisement of God?

What about the Catholic city of Zara which the same Crusaders sacked along the way?

History is not yet finished, if you want to boast over the geographical accident that Rome is in Italy and not in Turkey, and that makes your church somehow more correct… you might as well try it now, because tomorrow no one knows what the circumstances will be for any of us.

And lots of luck trying to convince intelligent inquirers with that line of approach.
No, of course I wouldn’t try to “read the tea leaves” of every event in history. But we’re talking about a 1000 year pattern here. I’m sorry you can’t see the difference.
 
The causes of lack of accord in the Church are discussed some by ecummenical groups.

If you have questions about the current state of the filioque issue, read “The Filioque: A Church-Dividing Issue?” (2003) which is a statement from the North American Orthodox-Catholic Theological Consultation which isThe Joint Committee of Orthodox and Catholic Bishops (SCOBA, USCCB, CCCB) established in 1965.

usccb.org/seia/filioque.shtml

Other issues too:

usccb.org/seia/orthodox_index.shtml
 
No, of course I wouldn’t try to “read the tea leaves” of every event in history. But we’re talking about a 1000 year pattern here. I’m sorry you can’t see the difference.
But then you would have to assume that the pattern of martyrdom and suppression of Christianity in the first 300 years of Christian history was a chastisement as well. The early Church lived under the tyranny of Rome. If the eastern Christians of the second millenium lived under the tyranny of the muslims that is no different.
 
History is unfinished. If you are reading tea leaves remember there is always another pour coming.
So would you say that Charles V sack of Rome with both Catholic and Lutheran soldiers was a chastisement as well?.. was it Providential?.. did we learn something from it?

The Muslim sack of Rome in 846AD?

The Vandal sack of Rome in 455AD?

The Visigoth sack of Rome in 410AD?

How about the legalization of abortion in Portugal? Is that a chastisement of God because innocent young people are being sacked by their parents around Fatima, and God allows it?

Would you say the Crusader sack and fifty-seven year long pillage of Constantinople 1203/1204AD through 1261AD was a chastisement of God?

What about the Catholic city of Zara which the same Crusaders sacked along the way?

History is not yet finished, if you want to boast over the geographical accident that Rome is in Italy and not in Turkey, and that makes your church somehow more correct… you might as well try it now, because tomorrow no one knows what the circumstances will be for any of us.

And lots of luck trying to convince intelligent inquirers with that line of approach.
So whenever a Catholic or the Catholic Church is persecuted it’s a “sign of contradiction” and evidence of God’s favor, but when the Orthodox suffer the worst persecutions in the history of the Church it’s evidence of God’s judgment.

See how that works? :eek:

Yours in Christ
Joe
 
Did Rome leave the Orthodox around 1054, completely out by 1400?

Is this statement true?

Quote:
“About the 10th Century, the Catholic church officially decided to take illegal authority over all dioceses in the West (by forcing them to adopt an illegally altered Nicene Creed as the key decision in that)–many of them were politically dependent on Rome, so they accepted without too much fuss, as it wasn’t upsetting the Status Quo. When the Anglican church ‘split’ from the Catholic church, what was happening was in reality, a return back to an older model of leadership in the church–a more Biblical and a model more in line with the whole tradition of the church. The Catholic church was wielding political authority as theology, and bad theology at that. When they refused to recognize Anglican orders it was a POLITICAL decision, not a theological one.”

I tried asking this question in another post, did not get too many replies. The answers I received were from more of the Eastern side answers then the CC.

Thanks
Joseph
Orthodox left the Catholic Church. This is evident because before the schism the Catholic Church was made up of both Eastern and Western churches and after the schism there were still both East and Western Catholics united under the Pontiff. This means that a group of churches within the East left and because of that they were schismatic groups which are known as the Orthodox Church. The Orthodox left the Catholic Church which was comprised of both Eastern and Western Churches. Rome did not leave the Orthodox Church since they didn’t exist until they left the Catholic Church in its entirety.
 
He did have one son (there are those who say he had another) Edward VI 12 October 1537 – 6 July 1553. He never reached maturity so his reign was ruled by a Regency Council.
Oops, my error. Just my CRS acting up.
 
Hello Clair from DE

A Anglican gave me this quote, of course this is what he read, or heard from some source. The point is that it looks to me we all have our own take on a subject. The problem lays with what one is correct? I am an Anglican, I want to come over to the CC, I have been doing alot of study and research on the CC never even considering the Eastern Church, another problem when I have more then one source explaining to me they are the true church according to what has been past down, or placed into the writings of the church. All have good references, I just do not know who to believe over the other? The poblem with answered questions they lead to other question that need answers!
Lord place me on the path that you want me to take. Amen
It might be helpful for you to remember that the Lord singled out Peter in a special way. The church in Rome where Peter had been bishop was considered by the early Christians to be the one that had the most reliable teachings and special authority (not the church in Jerusalem which was the older one, or Antioch which was where Peter had first been bishop).

If you follow Cardinal Newman and all those other Anglicans who came into full union with the Catholic church you will be in good company. May the many English martyrs who died rather than give up their Catholic faith intercede for you.
 
…after the schism there were still both East and Western Catholics united under the Pontiff.
This is a fallacy.

Eastern Christians were never under the “pontiff” in the first millenium, that is reading backward into history a type of papacy that did not exist at the time.

Also, there has been some effort to claim that the Maronites were in communion with (although not actually “under”) the Pope, but that has turned out to be a myth. They were out there doing their own thing, in communion with no one.
 
I thank all my Brothers and Sisters who have brought a new insight to me on this subject. I will indeed be doing a deeper study on the early church and what it means to the modern world. I have a belief, that this is all in God’s plan and has spread his words to the world, to believe in the one true God, praise be to God for all his Glory.

Thanks to All
Joseph 651
 
Also, there has been some effort to claim that the Maronites were in communion with (although not actually “under”) the Pope, but that has turned out to be a myth. They were out there doing their own thing, in communion with no one.

It’s true I don’t know everything about My Maronite faith. What you said does have a kernal of truth to it. Do to the geographic and social political currents at that time the Maronites were seperate from Rome. However, I feel you err when you say our communion with Rome was a myth. We may not have been able to keep ongoing talks with Rome but we didn’t schism from it either. We did and do accept the the Pope’s status as leader of the Catholic church. But we also have a Patriarch too who is our Maronite leader. Atleast I believe I said it right. 🙂
 
It’s true I don’t know everything about My Maronite faith. What you said does have a kernal of truth to it. Do to the geographic and social political currents at that time the Maronites were seperate from Rome. However, I feel you err when you say our communion with Rome was a myth. We may not have been able to keep ongoing talks with Rome but we didn’t schism from it either. We did and do accept the the Pope’s status as leader of the Catholic church. But we also have a Patriarch too who is our Maronite leader. Atleast I believe I said it right. 🙂
I think the point Michael is trying to make is that in the ancient Church being in communion with Rome didn’t mean “being under the Pope” in the modern sense of the phrase. The other four ancient Patriarchates were in communion with Rome but not in submission to her. If the Maronites were in communion with Rome they weren’t under papal jurisdiction the way they are now.

Yours in Christ
Joe
 
The Eastern bishops (Alexandria, Antioch, Jerusalem, Constantinople) signed the “Libellus Hormisdae,” defining the primacy of the Roman See in the year 519. The Roman See is primary in authority because Peter founded it first.

The patriarchs of Alexandria, Antioch, and Jerusalem in 1054 were Byzantine Greeks appointed by the Emperor of Constantinople, they were not autocephalous patriarchs at that time, and the cities were occupied by Muslims .

And there have been seven schisms, and all of them are technically resolved today, as of 1965. But after the fall of communism, doubts arose again, so in June 1992, The Vatican (Pro Russia commission) released a call for reconcilliation with “General Principles and Practical Norms for Coordinating the Evangelizing Activity and Ecumenical Commitment of the Catholic Church in Russia and in the Other Countries of the Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS).”
  1. 484 Pope Felix excommunicates Acacius and Patriarchs of Alexandria and Antioch for trying to appese Monophysites.
    526 Pope John 1 receives profession of Orthodox faith from Justin I. Pope John I is praised as the successor of Peter.
  2. 654 Emperor Constans II tries to impose the doctrine of Monothelitism,
    681 Council of constantinople III condemns Monothelitism.
  3. 736 Pope Gregory II excommunicates the Icoclasts.
    787 Council of Nicaea II condemns Iconclasts.
  4. 867 Photius challenges the authority of the Papacy, opposing filioque clause.
    869 Photius is deposed by 6th Council of Constantinople.
  5. 1054 Cardinal Humbertus excommunicates Patriarch Celurarius and his communicates without Papal approval. Patriarch excommunicates Humbertus and his delegates.
    1274 Pope John XXI affects reunion. East accepts filioque, unleavened bread, purgatory.
  6. 1281 Schism Pope Martin IV excommunicates Emperor Michael VIII Palaeologos.
    1439 Emperor John VIII Palaeologos submits to Pope Eugene VI. East accepts filioque as “through the Son” and Lyons II doctrines. Ferrara-Florence Act of Union.
  7. 1472 Greek bishops nullify the Ferrara-Florence Act of Union (from 1439) at a synod in Constantinople.
    1965 Patriarch Atheneagorus of Constantinople and Pope Paul VI nullified the excommunications from 1472.
Much of this information is from Mark Bonocore. You can see more history at the site: davidmacd.com/catholic/orthodox/index.htm
 
The Eastern bishops (Alexandria, Antioch, Jerusalem, Constantinople) signed the “Libellus Hormisdae,” defining the primacy of the Roman See in the year 519. The Roman See is primary in authority because Peter founded it first.
They also signed the Henoticon of Zeno, which essentially broke union with Rome. The Alexandrian and Antiochene patriarchates both rejected Rome as heretical within the century. The patriarchs of Constantinople and Jerusalem both later rejected Rome as heretical in the 11th century. To isolate the formula of Hormisdas and say the east viewed the Roman bishop as infallible is dishonest because it rejects the previous history and the subsequent history. It takes a political event and makes it absolute. It ignores the fact that the previous patriarch of Antioch, Severus, strongly opposed Rome as heretical and the only reason why he was not patriarch in 519 was because he was forced to leave Antioch because Justin had become emperor. The same was true of Alexandria.
The patriarchs of Alexandria, Antioch, and Jerusalem in 1054 were Byzantine Greeks appointed by the Emperor of Constantinople, they were not autocephalous patriarchs at that time, and the cities were occupied by Muslims .
What does the occupation by Muslims have to do with anything? The city of Rome was occupied by pagan Romans who persecuted Christians until the fourth century.
And there have been seven schisms, and all of them are technically resolved today, as of 1965. But after the fall of communism, doubts arose again, so in June 1992, The Vatican (Pro Russia commission) released a call for reconcilliation with “General Principles and Practical Norms for Coordinating the Evangelizing Activity and Ecumenical Commitment of the Catholic Church in Russia and in the Other Countries of the Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS).”
It seems that Mark Bonocore distorts history. The fact is that the schism between the Catholic and Orthodox Churches has never been resolved. If that were the case there would have been intercommunion. You seem to think that excommunication is some kind of claim of jurisdiction. Historically it is actually simply a break of communion (ex -communication). You can read writings of Catholics and Orthodox from the 60’s and 70’s which speak polemically against the other. The lifting of anathemas did not change anything. The schism with the Oriental Orthodox has never been resolved either. Rome is still heretical to the Oriental Orthodox. The schism with the Church of the East has never been healed either.
 
Jimmy you said: “To isolate the formula of Hormisdas and say the east viewed the Roman bishop as infallible is dishonest…”

I did not say that the Roman bishop was infallible, rather that the primacy of Rome was established and agreed to at that time. No dishonesty intended, and I did provide a link to anybody can read the entire site content.

jimmy you asked: “What does the occupation by Muslims have to do with anything?”

It has to do with the conditions of 1054; a relatively small number of Christians (due to the Muslims) were present there and were vassals of Constantinople.

You said: “The fact is that the schism between the Catholic and Orthodox Churches has never been resolved.”

It has been resolved as far as the Partriarchs removing the excommunications. That is why I said “technically”. To say “the schism” is understandable in a general sense, but the point I want to make is that it has been a series of vascillating schisms.

You said: “The lifting of anathemas did not change anything.”

This is not true, it has made a difference in the dialog process.
 
Did Rome leave the Orthodox around 1054, completely out by 1400?

Is this statement true?

Quote:
“About the 10th Century, the Catholic church officially decided to take illegal authority over all dioceses in the West (by forcing them to adopt an illegally altered Nicene Creed as the key decision in that)–many of them were politically dependent on Rome, so they accepted without too much fuss, as it wasn’t upsetting the Status Quo. When the Anglican church ‘split’ from the Catholic church, what was happening was in reality, a return back to an older model of leadership in the church–a more Biblical and a model more in line with the whole tradition of the church. The Catholic church was wielding political authority as theology, and bad theology at that. When they refused to recognize Anglican orders it was a POLITICAL decision, not a theological one.”

I tried asking this question in another post, did not get too many replies. The answers I received were from more of the Eastern side answers then the CC.

Thanks
Joseph
I recall people saying that the Orthodox and Catholics sort of split from each other… they let themselves become separate, while Catholics held on to the Truth… the Orthodox need to accept the Papacy.
 
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