Did the Apocalypse of Peter not make the Bible because of the last verse at the end?

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It seems to promote universal salvation. Thoughts?
“My Father will give unto them all the life, the glory, and the kingdom that passeth not away, … It is because of them that have believed in me that I am come. It is also because of them that have believed in me, that, at their word, I shall have pity on men. [and God said]”… thou must not tell that which thou hearest unto the sinners lest they transgress the more, and sin."
 
from what I understand only inspired scripture was accepted as part of the new testament canon,if it wasn’t accepted it wasn’t inspired.
 
‘‘There seem to be two versions of it. One is an Ethiopian version which has an ending in which everyone is saved in the end. The other one is an Egyptian version in which people are left in hell. So it seems to me the Apocalypse of Peter is problematic as a defense of universal reconciliation’’
 
The Ethiopic is the fullest text we have. It was found in Koine Greek also but is fragmentary. The Ethiopic version is considered the most accurate because all of the parts in the Greek are also in It, placed differently. The Egyptian one you speak of is a completely different version called the Coptic Apocalypse of Peter, and is Gnostic. I wasn’t referring to that one. And writings have to be inspired but are you forgetting it wasn’t until the 4th century the New Testament was formalized? The Apocalypse of Peter appears in the Muratorian Fragment, and also was quoted by Origin of Alexandria as scripture.
 
One of the issues is the date it was written.

“The Apocalypse of Peter” was written between 150 and 159 AD, along with “The Gospel of According to Peter,” “The Gospel of Thomas” and “The Protevangelium of James”

This is the same time period that St. Polycarp of Smyrna wrote his “Epistle of Polycarp to the Philippians”

catholicculture.org/culture/library/fathers/

This is a few decades after all of St. Ignatius’ epistles, and I have to imagine that St. John had to have already passed away by 150 AD.

God Bless.
 
As phil said, I believe the dating is a major issue. Peter died under the persecutions of Nero, so in the 60s. The Apocalypse of Peter was written about a century after his death, so it would not have been written by him. The Apostle John died in AD 100, so it would have also been written after all the Apostles have died. Could it have been spread orally? It’s possible but unlikely. Most of the Church Fathers did not consider it inspired, so it was left out.
 
I have often thought about this, and what pulls me back from believing it is the implications that it brings. Those implications are that either God is a liar (as He talks about those who will go to hell, even saying there are some who call Him Lord who will not enter the kingdom) or God is deceiving us to achieve His ends which cannot be because deception is the work of Satan, not God.

No, whatever happens with the end of the world and the second coming of Jesus, several things are absolute and clear, we will be judged, some will be thrown into the fire and some will go to eternal life and not everyone will be saved in the end.

Remember hell is locked from the inside, those who suffer eternal damnation hate God and it would be more of a punishment if God forced them into His presence than if He let them stay in hell. Hell is a mercy by God for those who hate Him.
 
I think scholars are divided on the dating. Some put it around the turn of the second century, others point to following the revolt in 135. It appears to have been inspired by 2 Esdras. However even with this late date; generally everyone acknowledges 2 Peter was just as late of a work. ( Some scholars actually believe the Apocalypse of Peter and 2 Peter could have been written by the same author) which makes sense. Both texts have apocalyptic tones. Either way it is a very important text. It seems to have inspired the 3rd century Apocalypse of Paul, or Visio Paul which itself directly influenced Dantes Inferno.
 
Regardless of the reason, we can be confident that the Church has spoken and has settled the matter.
 
jas84173 said:
It seems to promote universal salvation. Thoughts?
“My Father will give unto them all the life, the glory, and the kingdom that passeth not away, … It is because of them that have believed in me that I am come. It is also because of them that have believed in me, that, at their word, I shall have pity on men. [and God said]”… thou must not tell that which thou hearest unto the sinners lest they transgress the more, and sin."
Click to expand...
ntcanon.org/Apocalypse_of_Peter.shtml
 
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