J
JimBob1970
Guest
Did the prayer of Jesus in John 17 for unity fail?
A evangelical friend has stated that the prayer of Jesus for unity in John 17 was not for the Church in His time or now. The reason he claims this is because Jesus states that “The world may believe that you have sent me” He claims that since the world HAS NEVER believed that God sent Jesus then either the prayer failed (if we take the Catholic view) or the prayer is about Christ return. Then and only then (he claims) that the the world WOULD believe. He claims that since the world has never believed then the Catholic claims are false.
He first asked me to prove that either Jesus or the Apostles taught that historical visiblity determines whether the gates of hell prevailed against the church. I said that the unity of the Church which Christ prayed for is what would show the world that God sent Him. For the Church NOT to be visibly unified means that Jesus would have failed. Therefore Jesus did teach that the historic visibility does determine whether the gates of hell prevailed or not. Because if the Church wasn’t visible then the world wouldn’t have known. If they didn’t know, then Jesus prayer failed and if He failed then the gates of hell would have prevailed.
But, after this, he asked me when has the world ever believed that God sent Jesus? And to be honest, I am stumped on this one. Maybe my answer to him using John 17 to prove that Jesus taught that historical visibility determines whether the gates of hell prevailed or not was wrong. I don’t know. Maybe a better apologist can answer this.
So if any of you guys can help a fellow Catholic out, it would be appreciated.
A evangelical friend has stated that the prayer of Jesus for unity in John 17 was not for the Church in His time or now. The reason he claims this is because Jesus states that “The world may believe that you have sent me” He claims that since the world HAS NEVER believed that God sent Jesus then either the prayer failed (if we take the Catholic view) or the prayer is about Christ return. Then and only then (he claims) that the the world WOULD believe. He claims that since the world has never believed then the Catholic claims are false.
He first asked me to prove that either Jesus or the Apostles taught that historical visiblity determines whether the gates of hell prevailed against the church. I said that the unity of the Church which Christ prayed for is what would show the world that God sent Him. For the Church NOT to be visibly unified means that Jesus would have failed. Therefore Jesus did teach that the historic visibility does determine whether the gates of hell prevailed or not. Because if the Church wasn’t visible then the world wouldn’t have known. If they didn’t know, then Jesus prayer failed and if He failed then the gates of hell would have prevailed.
But, after this, he asked me when has the world ever believed that God sent Jesus? And to be honest, I am stumped on this one. Maybe my answer to him using John 17 to prove that Jesus taught that historical visibility determines whether the gates of hell prevailed or not was wrong. I don’t know. Maybe a better apologist can answer this.
So if any of you guys can help a fellow Catholic out, it would be appreciated.