J
justasking4
Guest
These are good questions but we can’t discuss them here or else this thread my be closed.The way I understand it is (and you can correct my fallacies):
*In the late 4th century, a local Synod (of Rome?) and two councils - Hippo and Carthage all came up with the same OT canon. They included the Deuterocanonicals as full Inspired Scripture. For the next 11 centuries, the Church accepted (though not as dogma) this Canon as Scripture. Although there was some dissent, the most notable being St. Jerome, it was only minor dissent for the most part.
That is, until the Reformation. As with most other Dogma’s (the Immaculate Conception being one exception), the Church didn’t officially declare something infallibly unless She had to settle a dispute that couldn’t settle itself. It seems that the official binding declarations is actually a last resort of the Church’s, rather than an oft-used way to throw Rome’s weight around.
The Council of Trent did not treat the OT Canon any differently (giving any books any more or less weight) than Hippo and Carthage.*
Now, does Mr. Beckwith agree with that?
BTW, where do the Protestant Bibles get their OT Canons from? By whose authority were they selected?