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wasmit
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regarding jesus claiming to be the son of god,Jesus many times claims to be someone quite special. In Mark 2:28, Jesus claims to be the Lord of the Sabbath (Exodus 20:10). He also claims to be greater than the Prophet Jonah (Matt 12:41), King Solomon (Matt 12:42) and even the Temple (Matt 12:6). According to Mark 2:1-12, Jesus claims authority to forgive sins and performs a miraculous cure to prove it. The scribes are angered because they believe that only God has the authority to forgive sins. These claims are quite extraordinary for someone who is “humble in heart.” [Matt 11:29]
Jesus, while arguing with the scribes, makes an interesting statement about Himself and Abraham:
Jesus answered them: “I solemnly declare it: before Abraham came to be, I AM.” At that they picked up rocks to throw at Jesus… [John 8:58-59; NAB]
Jesus claims to have existed also before Abraham - something impossible for a mere human. Moreover the statement sounds grammatically awkward due to tense disagreement. It would sound better if He had said “I WAS” instead of “I AM.” The present tense implies Christ’s eternal existence as God.
Even though Jesus does not explicitly call Himself “God”, He does refer to Himself with a form of God’s name. The full meaning of His statement in John 8:58 is best understood in connection with Exodus 3:14. In Exodus God reveals His name to Moses:
God replied, “I AM WHO AM.” Then He added, “This is what you shall tell the Israelites: I AM sent me to you.” [Exodus 3:14; NAB]
God’s name - YHWH (Yahweh) - translates as “I AM WHO AM” or simply “I AM.” In John 8:24 & 58, Jesus is referring to Himself with God’s name. The scribes understand Him as such and respond by throwing rocks at Him. They wanted to stone Jesus for blasphemy - referring to Himself as God (John 5:18).
Other people in the Gospels also bear witness to His divinity. Even before His birth, He is referred to as Lord. Inspired by the Holy Spirit, Elizabeth greets the pregnant Mary:
“But who am I that the mother of my Lord should come to me?” [Luke 1:43; NAB]
Elizabeth refers to Mary as “the mother of my Lord.” Elsewhere in Luke 1, the title “Lord” refers to God, e.g. “an angel of the Lord” [Luke 1:11]. It should be noted that the name YHWH, being too sacred, could not be uttered, so the Hebrews said “Lord” instead. This passage in Luke suggests that Jesus was God while in the womb of Mary. Also when Jesus was an infant, the wise men worshipped Him according to Matthew 2:11. If the Christ Child were not divine, then this Gospel passage would present idolatry in a positive light. Later Jesus even allows people to worship-adore Him, as in John 9: 38. Finally after the Resurrection, Thomas greets Jesus as “My Lord and my God.” [John 20:28; cf. Ps 35:23] Jesus confirms this greeting without any hesitation, objection or correction. As a teacher Jesus would be obliged to correct an error, especially a blasphemous error.
(1) DID he proclaim himself this or was this an accretion to his story added in later decades?
(2) Did the phrase “Son of God” mean to a Jew and Jewish audience then what you seem to think it means - ie God in human form?
The answer to (1) is “We really don’t know”.
The answer to (2) is “No, it didn’t”.
Even if we assume that Jesus did claim to be “the Son of God”, all the evidence indicates that this title, along with “Son of Man”, simply meant “the Messiah” and not “God in human form”. That latter interpretation didn’t arise until after the Jesus Sect had begun to well and truly drift from its Jewish roots and would have been incomprehensible and actually abhorrent to Jesus and his first followers.