S
Starofthesea21
Guest
The sermon I heard this past Sunday focused a great deal on the situation surrounding the decision by the German bishops to begin a process to allow for divorced and remarried Catholics to receive communion.
The priest asserted that the Church has had law allowing this certain certain circumstances since the early 1900’s. I looked into this as I had never heard of this before and found that this was only allowed if the pastor is said situation deemed that scandal would not be caused and the couple would live as brother and sister. The priest failed to mention this important part of the canonical law.
My question is, am I just unable to find what he is talking about or did the priest leave leave out the requirements that the church laid out. This would make more sense that the couple would have no longer be living as a man and wife but could still provide for any children.
It would not make sense to me to have a stipulation that allows for a couple to continue to live with someone they are not sacramentaly married to and receive communion.
The priest asserted that the Church has had law allowing this certain certain circumstances since the early 1900’s. I looked into this as I had never heard of this before and found that this was only allowed if the pastor is said situation deemed that scandal would not be caused and the couple would live as brother and sister. The priest failed to mention this important part of the canonical law.
My question is, am I just unable to find what he is talking about or did the priest leave leave out the requirements that the church laid out. This would make more sense that the couple would have no longer be living as a man and wife but could still provide for any children.
It would not make sense to me to have a stipulation that allows for a couple to continue to live with someone they are not sacramentaly married to and receive communion.