Do Catholics and Orthodox already share Eucharistic communion?

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If Christ is truly present in both Catholic and Orthodox communion, do we already share communion? It is not as if there were 2 different Jesus’ in the communion of the 2 different churches. So being that we are already sharing the same Eucharistic Christ are we already in communion, and is it just human politics standing in the way?

Share your thoughts please! 🙂
 
An interesting question. Since we say that in going to Mass we join at the one feast that Jesus shared with His disciples and partake of the one loaf that He broke with them, your supposition does seem a logical conclusion.
 
ciero said:
If Christ is truly present in both Catholic and Orthodox communion, do we already share communion? It is not as if there were 2 different Jesus’ in the communion of the 2 different churches. So being that we are already sharing the same Eucharistic Christ are we already in communion, and is it just human politics standing in the way?

Share your thoughts please! 🙂
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I have been saying this for years, There is one cosmic liturgy.

So yes, from a Catholic perspective.
 
Hesychios said:
I have been saying this for years, There is one cosmic liturgy.

So yes, from a Catholic perspective.
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The thought was put into my head by an Orthodox Bishop, so I’d be interested in why you say from a Catholic perspective.
 
Do we? Are we really “in communion” with each other? Maybe not quite yet.
 
JamestheOlder said:
Do we? Are we really “in communion” with each other? Maybe not quite yet.
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If we are in communion with Christ, how are we not in communion with each other? If we believe that the Eucharist we receive is the real Body and Blood of Christ, how can we be apart? Is there a Catholic Christ and an Orthodox Christ?
 
JamestheOlder said:
Do we? Are we really “in communion” with each other? Maybe not quite yet.
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Pray tell… according to the original premise why do you say that? Are there 2 Christs? One Catholic and one Orthodox…or are you saying the Orthodox don’t really have valid sacraments?
 
ciero said:
Pray tell… according to the original premise why do you say that? Are there 2 Christs? One Catholic and one Orthodox…or are you saying the Orthodox don’t really have valid sacraments?
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I say neither. I say “in communion” in that we all belong to ONE community. The official position of the RCC is that we (RCC) may NOT receive Holy Communion in an Orthodox Church which is not in union with Rome. For all I know there may be a similar position on the part of the Orthodox. I’m sorry for the negativity of the situation, but it is a real situation yet to be resolved.
 
ConstantineTG said:
If we are in communion with Christ, how are we not in communion with each other? If we believe that the Eucharist we receive is the real Body and Blood of Christ, how can we be apart? Is there a Catholic Christ and an Orthodox Christ?
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I make no theological statements, Constantine. Please refer to the response to ciero.
 
JamestheOlder said:
I say neither. I say “in communion” in that we all belong to ONE community. The official position of the RCC is that we (RCC) may NOT receive Holy Communion in an Orthodox Church which is not in union with Rome. For all I know there may be a similar position on the part of the Orthodox. I’m sorry for the negativity of the situation, but it is a real situation yet to be resolved.
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Not entirely true, according to the Code of Canon Law:
Can. 844 §1. Catholic ministers administer the sacraments licitly to Catholic members of the Christian faithful alone, who likewise receive them licitly from Catholic ministers alone, without prejudice to the prescripts of §§2, 3, and 4 of this canon, and ⇒ can. 861, §2.
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§2. Whenever necessity requires it or true spiritual advantage suggests it, and provided that danger of error or of indifferentism is avoided, the Christian faithful for whom it is physically or morally impossible to approach a Catholic minister are permitted to receive the sacraments of penance, Eucharist, and anointing of the sick from non-
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Catholic ministers in whose Churches these sacraments are valid.
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§3. Catholic ministers administer the sacraments of penance, Eucharist, and anointing of the sick licitly to members of Eastern Churches which do not have full communion with the Catholic Church if they seek such on their own accord and are properly disposed. This is also valid for members of other Churches which in the judgment of the Apostolic See are in the same condition in regard to the sacraments as these Eastern Churches.
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§4. If the danger of death is present or if, in the judgment of the diocesan bishop or conference of bishops, some other grave necessity urges it, Catholic ministers administer these same sacraments licitly also to other Christians not having full communion with the Catholic Church, who cannot approach a minister of their own community and who seek such on their own accord, provided that they manifest Catholic faith in respect to these sacraments and are properly disposed.
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§5. For the cases mentioned in §§2, 3, and 4, the diocesan bishop or conference of bishops is not to issue general norms except after consultation at least with the local competent authority of the interested non-Catholic Church or community.
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I find the italicized section very, very interesting.

-ACEGC
 
edward_george said:
Not entirely true, according to the Code of Canon Law:

-ACEGC
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There is no dispute from me in this regard. In times of emergency, we would hope that differences of opinion over semantics or form or other disagreements would be waived by the RCC or Orthodox minister.

This point, however, which may mainly be held by the RCC (it is RCC Canon Law you are quoting) still does not answer the basic question posited by the OP: Are we “in communion”?
 
JamestheOlder said:
There is no dispute from me in this regard. In times of emergency, we would hope that differences of opinion over semantics or form or other disagreements would be waived by the RCC or Orthodox minister.

This point, however, which may mainly be held by the RCC (it is RCC Canon Law you are quoting) still does not answer the basic question posited by the OP: Are we “in communion”?
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Are we in corporate communion, as in our hierarchies are all in union with one another? No, and no one should think so at the moment. Do we all have a valid Eucharist, and thus share some degree of communion in that regard (as well as doctrinally in many ways, sacramentally, and in shared Apostolic succession)? Absolutely.

-ACEGC
 
Are Orthodox sacraments considered valid by Catholics, and are Catholic sacraments considered valid by Orthodox?
 
I_Thirst said:
Are Orthodox sacraments considered valid by Catholics, and are Catholic sacraments considered valid by Orthodox?
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Yes,for the most part…of course you have radicals in both churches who would say otherwise…but for the most part the answer is YES.
 
ciero said:
Yes,for the most part…of course you have radicals in both churches who would say otherwise…but for the most part the answer is YES.
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Agreed. And, yes, ciero, it is “politics” or some such devilish roadblock that keeps us separate. And it is unfortunate.

We need to pray for true reconciliation…probably St. Athanasius should be invoked for his intercession…that we may be ONE.

Peace be with you!
 
ciero said:
Yes,for the most part…of course you have radicals in both churches who would say otherwise…but for the most part the answer is YES.
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Ok, thanks! Not sure what is meant by “for the most part”? Do you mean that some sacraments are valid, but others are not?

I know that Catholic/Orthodox relations have a historic dimension that creates some problems with being in communion with each other, but I don’t know much about what these are and need to do some reading.
 
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