Now you are back to saying that Jesus’ words mean nothing when He says, “Amen, amen…” When do we take Jesus’ words literally? Only after three “amens”?
I do take it literally, I’m not the one on here arguing against the real presence. That IS what Christ was saying in this entire passage. He was saying the bread and wine are His body and blood. I take that quite literally, as did the disciples who left him.
You cannot have it both ways Brad. Either He is speaking literally and the priest and regular communion are required for salvation or He is speaking figuratively and the priesthood is the invention of man.
Russ, I do not understand this passage to mean that Christ is saying that you need a priest and you need regular communion. I take this passage to mean that the bread and wine are his body and blood. Literalistic vs Literal interpretation. The Eucharist was not established by this passage, but the literal meaning of His body and blood were.
Again, is communion required or not?. Are the words of Jesus reliable or not?
I think this has been answered, but I’ll quote something to make it a little more clear:
CCC 1129 The Church affirms that for believers the sacraments of the New Covenant are necessary for salvation…
Here’s something from the Catholic Encyclopedia found under “Holy Communion” in case you want to google it.
"The doctrine of the Church is that Holy Communion is morally necessary for salvation, that is to say, without the graces of this sacrament it would be very difficult to resist grave temptations and avoid grievous sin. Moreover, there is according to theologians a Divine precept by which all are bound to receive communion at least some times during life. How often this precept urges outside the danger of death it is not easy to say, but many hold that the Church has practically determined the Divine precept by the law of the Fourth Council of Lateran (c.xxi) confirmed by Trent, which obliges the faithful to receive Communion once each year within Paschal Time.
The subject of Holy Communion is everyone in this life capable of the effects of the Sacrament, that is all who are baptized and who, if adults, have the requisite intention (see COMMUNION OF CHILDREN)."
I’m sure your next question is going to be something along these lines, “Why, then, does the Church teach that a Muslim or Jew can be saved?” Am I right?
Christ’s words are reliable. Christ cannot lie and the Bible cannot contradict itself. If there is an apparent contradiction it is a problem with our own understanding. You are seeing an apparent contradiction, I am not.
You failed to answer this question so I’ll just ask it again. If you believe John 3:16 to mean that we are saved if we believe, then why are we having this discussion? Catholics believe so we are saved by your own definition! We believe, we confess Christ as our Lord and Savior! If you doubt this, let me end with quotes from the Nicene Creed, which we recite at every Sunday Mass:
We believe in one Lord, Jesus Christ, the only Son of God…
For us men and for our salvation, He came down from Heaven…