Do Eastern Catholics accept the filioque?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Alethiaphile
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
I don’t see how a secular enforced union is “representative” of the entire church of Constantinople, especially considering that non of the other Patriarchs sent anyone at all nor agreed to the union of Lyons. The church of Kyiv did not send representatives to Lyons, never mind the fact that Church has already disavowed the requirements of Lyons (insertion of the Filioque into the greek creed) and two Popes later excommunicated the Emperor without cause.
 
I don’t see how a secular enforced union is “representative” of the entire church of Constantinople, especially considering that non of the other Patriarchs sent anyone at all nor agreed to the union of Lyons. The church of Kyiv did not send representatives to Lyons, never mind the fact that Church has already disavowed the requirements of Lyons (insertion of the Filioque into the greek creed) and two Popes later excommunicated the Emperor without cause.
While I agree that the Council of Lyons is not representative and shouldn’t be considered binding, I believe that at that time the Patriarchate of Constantinople was the only real game in town. The “Church of Kiev” was a subsidiary of the Church of Constantinople, as was the Church of Antioch for all intents and purposes, IIRC. It wasn’t until later that these Churches gained sufficient independence to be considered their own hierarchies.

Peace and God bless!
 
Brothers Ghosty, Formosus, and JMJ_Coder all make good points.

I think we can all agree that the instruction of Lyons that the filioque be added to the Greek Creed was abrogated by Florence.

Peace.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear brother Formosus,

I just read the text of the Lyons decree from here:

monachos.net/content/patristics/patristictexts/178-lyons-filioque

I don’t see any reference to filioque being imposed on the Creed, only that the theology be accepted. Perhaps I read it too quickly. Can you please point to the specific place where it states that filioque must be added to the Creed of the Greeks?

Blessings,
Marduk
 
I don’t think it was an actual part of the council, it was a result of Council though where it was imposed on the Greek Church by the Emperor who was eager to show his allegiance to Rome.
 
I don’t think it was an actual part of the council, it was a result of Council though where it was imposed on the Greek Church by the Emperor who was eager to show his allegiance to Rome.
I understand now. I had thought you stated that the Pope imposed an addition to the Creed, but when I looked back to your original statement, I noticed it did not actually explicitly state that it was the Pope who imposed an addition to the Creed. However, you seemed to imply it by stating that Florence realized its mistake. Then again, you never actually stated that the Pope imposed it, but rather that it was imposed by the Lyons Union. My bad.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
No problem : ) things can get kind of confusing one these internet forums.
 
I understand now. I had thought you stated that the Pope imposed an addition to the Creed, but when I looked back to your original statement, I noticed it did not actually explicitly state that it was the Pope who imposed an addition to the Creed. However, you seemed to imply it by stating that Florence realized its mistake. Then again, you never actually stated that the Pope imposed it, but rather that it was imposed by the Lyons Union. My bad.

Blessings,
Marduk
Why would it matter. The fact is that the creed was said with the filioque in the West, but not in the East.
 
Why would it matter. The fact is that the creed was said with the filioque in the West, but not in the East.
That was my pont exactly. If it is not a universal addition, and only local, it should not affect the universal Church. The problem here really is not the original Latin or Greek, but the English translation which is so ubiquitous that it makes no distinction between the meaning of the Latin procedit and the Greek ekproeusai.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
I thought that the Greek Church had been excomunicated from the Roman Church at that point in time?
One of the primary purposes of that Council was reunion, so naturally the Church wanted their participation. The Eastern Orthodox have had representatives at other Ecumenical Councils as well, such as at Vatican II.

This brings up an interesting discussion – that may deserve its own thread:

What amount of representation is needed in an Ecumenical Council. Certainly the ideal would be that every Bishop in the world be present – but this, as far as I know, has rarely been realized in history. Also, what about our separated brethren? For example, after the Council of Chalcedon, few if any Oriental Orthodox participated in the subsequent Councils of the first millenium, but both Catholic and Eastern Orthodox admit to their Ecumenical nature. Thus wouldn’t it be natural for the Catholic Church, since it holds that the Eastern Orthodox are sadly separated from Catholic Communion, to not see it as necessary for the Eastern Orthodox to participate in the Councils for them to be Ecumenical?
 
That was my pont exactly. If it is not a universal addition, and only local, it should not affect the universal Church. The problem here really is not the original Latin or Greek, but the English translation which is so ubiquitous that it makes no distinction between the meaning of the Latin procedit and the Greek ekproeusai.

Blessings,
Marduk
Modern man thinks he is so sophisticated, but we’re still suffering the ill effects of Babel! 😦
 
One of the primary purposes of that Council was reunion, so naturally the Church wanted their participation. The Eastern Orthodox have had representatives at other Ecumenical Councils as well, such as at Vatican II.

This brings up an interesting discussion – that may deserve its own thread:

What amount of representation is needed in an Ecumenical Council. Certainly the ideal would be that every Bishop in the world be present – but this, as far as I know, has rarely been realized in history. Also, what about our separated brethren? For example, after the Council of Chalcedon, few if any Oriental Orthodox participated in the subsequent Councils of the first millenium, but both Catholic and Eastern Orthodox admit to their Ecumenical nature. Thus wouldn’t it be natural for the Catholic Church, since it holds that the Eastern Orthodox are sadly separated from Catholic Communion, to not see it as necessary for the Eastern Orthodox to participate in the Councils for them to be Ecumenical?
The Orthodox present at Vatican II were observers.
 
The Orthodox present at Vatican II were observers.
Interestingly, I believe the Eastern Orthodox were invited to participate fully in Vatican I but declined. I don’t know if they were invited only as observers to Vatican II, or if they were invited as full participants. Does anyone know the details on that?

Peace and God bless!
 
Interestingly, I believe the Eastern Orthodox were invited to participate fully in Vatican I but declined. I don’t know if they were invited only as observers to Vatican II, or if they were invited as full participants. Does anyone know the details on that?

Peace and God bless!
Interesting. I vaguely recall the Orthodox being invited to another big council (Trent? Vatican I?).

A few years ago I read the book The Rhine Flows into the Tiber, in which I believe this was discussed. Seems there were some complications regarding the Russian Church. I don’t have the book on me now, unfortunately.

Anyone know if the Protestants were invited as full participants? 🙂
 
Interesting. I vaguely recall the Orthodox being invited to another big council (Trent? Vatican I?).

A few years ago I read the book The Rhine Flows into the Tiber, in which I believe this was discussed. Seems there were some complications regarding the Russian Church. I don’t have the book on me now, unfortunately.

Anyone know if the Protestants were invited as full participants? 🙂
At Vatican II, I don’t know if the Orthodox were invited as full participants? I doubt they would have been given the ability to vote, but they might have been able to make interventions and such. As for the Russians, to be able to convince them to come even as observers required the Church to agree not to discuss Communism or the Soviet State.

As for Protestants, they might have been invited to Trent, but by the time Vatican I & II came along, they were “too far gone” to seriously consider anything more than observer status, in my opinion.
 
At Vatican II, I don’t know if the Orthodox were invited as full participants? I doubt they would have been given the ability to vote, but they might have been able to make interventions and such. As for the Russians, to be able to convince them to come even as observers required the Church to agree not to discuss Communism or the Soviet State.

As for Protestants, they might have been invited to Trent, but by the time Vatican I & II came along, they were “too far gone” to seriously consider anything more than observer status, in my opinion.
I seem to recall that the Orthodox were attended Vatican II as observers. I have no idea if any were able (or even desired) to make an intervention. Is there a participating bishop or peritus in the house???

As for the Protestants, even at Trent they could not have been more than observers. The participants in an Oecumenical Council are bishops (and by that I mean bishops having true Apostolic succession). Kind of leaves the Protestants out.
 
I seem to recall that the Orthodox were attended Vatican II as observers. I have no idea if any were able (or even desired) to make an intervention. Is there a participating bishop or peritus in the house???

As for the Protestants, even at Trent they could not have been more than observers. The participants in an Oecumenical Council are bishops (and by that I mean bishops having true Apostolic succession). Kind of leaves the Protestants out.
But, at Trent there most likely were still validly ordained Bishops still around in the Protestant world. This would be true most for Lutherans and Anglicans (I can’t remember whether England was for Rome or against at that time – they switched back and forth with each successive monarch for about 200 years).
 
I seem to recall that the Orthodox were attended Vatican II as observers. I have no idea if any were able (or even desired) to make an intervention. Is there a participating bishop or peritus in the house???

As for the Protestants, even at Trent they could not have been more than observers. The participants in an Oecumenical Council are bishops (and by that I mean bishops having true Apostolic succession). Kind of leaves the Protestants out.
Yes, I was joking about the Protestants (the conspiracy theories)

One question: if the Orthodox were to have fully participated, what would have been their place in the Council?

If I remember correctly, at Vatican II there was an issue of where the Melkite Patriarch ought to be seated relative to the Cardinals. How much more complicated the situation were an Orthodox Patriarch (or his representatives) to show up as active participants–and amongst the Eastern Catholic bishops! One wonders if they would have all acted as civil as us on here. 🙂
 
Yes, I was joking about the Protestants (the conspiracy theories)

One question: if the Orthodox were to have fully participated, what would have been their place in the Council?
At the UN, for example, those who hold “Observer” status are entitled to participate in debate, etc, but of course do not have a vote.

Had the Orthodox been invited to fully participate, (meaning if they had been accorded the right to vote), the only conclusion I could draw is that the elusive “union” would have been achieved.
Madaglan;:
If I remember correctly, at Vatican II there was an issue of where the Melkite Patriarch ought to be seated relative to the Cardinals. How much more complicated the situation were an Orthodox Patriarch (or his representatives) to show up as active participants–and amongst the Eastern Catholic bishops! One wonders if they would have all acted as civil as us on here. 🙂
The then-Melkite Patriarch (Maximos IV) was a Cardinal (although there was some internal controversy about his having accepted). Anyway, (and this is just a guess), if there was any issue of where he would be seated relative to the Cardinals, it probably would have had something to to with protocol and precedence: the Melkite Patriarch holds a rather complex title (“Patriarch of Antioch, Alexandria, and Jerusalem” although it may be even more complex than that) so it could likely have been the perennial issue of Alexandria taking precedence over Antioch.
 
But, at Trent there most likely were still validly ordained Bishops still around in the Protestant world. This would be true most for Lutherans and Anglicans (I can’t remember whether England was for Rome or against at that time – they switched back and forth with each successive monarch for about 200 years).
True, and had any of them been called to participate at Trent, it would have been de facto recognition of the validity of that bishop’s Apostolic succession.

And of course Trent went on for so long and in so many sessions, it would be rather difficult to determine where the Anglicans were at any particular time.

In any case, let’s say some of those Lutheran and Anglican bishops were seated at Trent. Three things come to mind:


  1. *]Had they voted placet and accepted the decrees, they would have ipso-facto renounced Protestantism.

    *]Had they voted placet and then later refused to accept the decrees, they would have reverted to Protestantism and would have again been in heresy (or at least in schism).

    *]Had they voted non placet and refused to endorse the decrees in the first place (i.e. at the time), they would have been in heresy (or at least in schism) same as they if they had not attended and voted.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top