Dear brother Fone Bone,
The theological disagreement is apparently that the Latin West considers the Son’s role in sending the Spirit to be an indicator also of the inner life of the Holy Trinity itself. I looked and could not find this teaching in the Catechism. Maybe I just missed it. If not, though, I think it’s telling that they decided not to include it.
The East - both Catholic and Orthodox - rejects this notion. But the filioque need not be an obstacle for union, because the eastern Catholic churches are perfectly free to interpret the Latin use of the filioque in a way that harmonizes with their position - i.e. that the Spirit proceeds into the world from the Father through the Son. On that we are in agreement.
I’m not certain that the debate is about whether the Son has a role in “the inner life” of the Holy Trinity itself (though there might be some EO who style it that way). All Eastern and Oriental (not to mention Western) patristic sources are practically unanimous that the Spirit obtains the Divine Essence from the Father through the Son. In equivalent terms, this means that the Spirit is consubstantial with the Father
AND the Son (
filioque). Thus, the Son can never be considered non-essential to the “inner life” of the Holy Trinity.
The real question has always been about the Son’s role in the origin of the PERSON of the Spirit. EVERYONE agrees that the PERSON of the HS originates from the Father alone. The issue is the use of the term “
subsistence” in describing the relationship of the Son to the HS. The Council of Florence asserts that “
the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father through the Son [in] the sense that…the Son should be signified, according to the Latins as principle of the subsistence of the Holy Spirit, just like the Father.”
Since the Son has a mediating role in the transmission of the Divine Essence from the Father to the HS, and the Divine Essence is the very thing that “makes” the HS “God,” then Latins cannot deny that the Son participates in the subsistence of the HS. Of course, the HS is a distinct PERSON of the Godhead, and is not exclusively defined according to His Divine Essence alone (if this were so, then one could not distinguish the HS from the Father or the Son, Who are also God by virtue of this same Divine Essence). The Latins fully understand this, and acknowledged by the North American Catholic-Orthodox colloquy on the matter. This was also affirmed by the OFFICIAL Clarification on Filioque promulgated by HH JP2 of thrice-blessed memory, wherein it was asserted that when the Latins speak of the Son being the subsistence of the HS “
just like the Father,” they are referring to the Divine Essence,
not the Person of the HS (the latter being
ekporeusai from the Father
alone).
You would think that would settle it, but certain modern EO apologists have added an novel dimension to the debate. It is now claimed by certain EO that the procession, as it relates to the Son, can only refer to the
temporal sending of the HS from the Father through the Son. This is not the teaching of St. Gregory Palamas nor of the Synod of Blarchanae, who specifically taught that the manifestation or energetic procession (according to the expression of St.Palamas) of the HS from the Son is in the order of the
ETERNAL, not the merely temporal.
On this point, I would disagree with your statement that Eastern Catholics interpret
Filioque as merely referring to the sending of the Holy Spirit into the world by the Son. I’ve only ever met one EC layman who, following
modern EO sources, makes such a claim. The rest I’ve encountered follow the Synod of Blarchanae and St. Gregory Palamas in acknowledging the ETERNAL energetic procession of the HS from the Father through the Son.
The other issue that seems to be delaying rapprochement is the canonical rationale for the addition of
filioque in the Latin Creed. Many want the
filioque removed as a condition of reunion. The fact of the matter is:
(1) No one in the East ever insisted that the Latins remove
filioque from their Creed until St. Photius’ time (certainly St. Maximos did not insist upon it for him to regard himself as being in communion with Rome).
(2) Even then, the rationale for the removal was not a canonical one, but was rather purely theological. Up until the time of Mark of Ephesus, inclusive, the demand that the Latins remove
filioque was based on a (mis)understanding that the Latin use of
filioque was denuding the Father’s role as Arche in the Trinity). Any arguments in these medieval Eastern sources against the impropriety of the textual addition was based
purely on its theological relevance. The medieval Easterns were complaining against
filioque not because they thought it was an improper addition of text, but because of what they genuinely believed to be a heterodox addition to the Faith itself (due to a misunderstanding of the Latin theology for the use of
filioque).
As I’ve always maintained, any demand by non-Latins for the Latins to remove
filioque is at this time premature. We need to work for understanding first. Without this proper common understanding of each others’ theological positions, removing
filioque will cause more problems than it will solve. And I think we can all admit there is still a lot of misunderstanding between our respective Churches (and even among members of our respective Churches) that need to be ironed out.
Blessings,
Marduk