Do Homosexuals Have The Equal Rights in the USA?

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“Satanist” “Pervert” “Anarchist” “Idiot” “Fool” “Hair hopper*” “Whipersnapper” “Not so smarty pants”

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*Baltimore slang: hair-hopper, a nickname for teenagers who favor mile-high 'dos that are kept towering with hairspray
Must be CA!
 
BobObob;7265591Who defines “marriage” to begin with and what gives them the authority to define it? Lets remember that whether individuals are recognized as married (regardless of how one defines marriage) has practical implications. [/QUOTE said:
Who determines that 2 + 2 = 4? There is reason and intelligibility in the universe - i.e., there are universals. And we ascribe to these universals words and symbols, but we have no power whatever to change these universals. Hence, 2 + 2 is always 4 and marriage is between a man and woman, between two members of the opposite sex in the highest fulfillment of human nature. It is not in human nature to be the attracted to the same-sex - the Church and any other man of reason is right to call this, truly, a disorder. From one’s head to their toes, they are purposed, in quite a serious way, for the opposite sex. Now, the State has no right to tell other people that they cannot engage in disordered acts, but it cannot declare by fiat that 2 + 2 is now 5. That is absurd. The United States has no right to meddle in mathematics, and it also has no right to meddle with marriage, an institution that precedes the existence of the US in the first place! So… the whole problem is that the State is involved in marriage at all! If it were not, this division between us would not exist. I favor Ron Paul’s solution: get out of marriage altogether.
 
BobObob;7265591:
Who defines “marriage” to begin with and what gives them the authority to define it? Lets remember that whether individuals are recognized as married (regardless of how one defines marriage) has practical implications.
Who determines that 2 + 2 = 4? There is reason and intelligibility in the universe - i.e., there are universals. And we ascribe to these universals words and symbols, but we have no power whatever to change these universals. Hence, 2 + 2 is always 4 and marriage is between a man and woman . . .]
Definitions of words are not absolute. Language is a creation of man.

2+2+4 regardless of whether or not we use symbols “2” and “4” to describe that reality. However, if one argues that the definition of “marriage” is such that “marriage” is by definition between one man and one woman (as you did in post 248), one has created a tautology by picking his/her own definition of “marriage”. If claims the definition of “marriage” is between one person and another person of the same race, then that person would also be creating a tautology in which that racist person can claim that a union between a Caucasian-American and an African-American is by definition, not a marriage.
It is not in human nature to be the attracted to the same-sex
Define “nature”. Obviously, since some individuals are attracted primarily to others of the same sex, it is in “nature” to be attracted to the same sex (depending on what one means by “nature”).
Now, the State has no right to tell other people that they cannot engage in disordered acts . . .] the whole problem is that the State is involved in marriage at all! If it were not, this division between us would not exist. I favor Ron Paul’s solution: get out of marriage altogether.
I’m glad you and I can agree in this respect. That was my political stance even when I was Catholic. I’m assuming that you would agree with me that the government does have the power and responsibility to fight against rape and sexual abuse of minors, since these things violate the rights of others.
 
Who determines that 2 + 2 = 4? There is reason and intelligibility in the universe - i.e., there are universals. And we ascribe to these universals words and symbols, but we have no power whatever to change these universals. Hence, 2 + 2 is always 4 and marriage is between a man and woman, between two members of the opposite sex in the highest fulfillment of human nature. It is not in human nature to be the attracted to the same-sex - the Church and any other man of reason is right to call this, truly, a disorder. From one’s head to their toes, they are purposed, in quite a serious way, for the opposite sex. Now, the State has no right to tell other people that they cannot engage in disordered acts, but it cannot declare by fiat that 2 + 2 is now 5. That is absurd. The United States has no right to meddle in mathematics, and it also has no right to meddle with marriage, an institution that precedes the existence of the US in the first place! So… the whole problem is that the State is involved in marriage at all! If it were not, this division between us would not exist. I favor Ron Paul’s solution: get out of marriage altogether.
The State has nothing to do with this.

God bless,
Ed
 
The State has nothing to do with this.

God bless,
Ed
Can you elaborate?

I am trying to make heads or tails of your post, Bob. I don’t think I said definitions are absolute or that language is not a creation of man. I also am not clear when you say that I have created a tautology. Huh. I’m off to bed, though.
 
I am trying to make heads or tails of your post, Bob. I don’t think I said definitions are absolute or that language is not a creation of man. I also am not clear when you say that I have created a tautology. Huh. I’m off to bed, though.
To simplify, if one chooses to define marriage a certain way, then one cannot argue that “this is simply the definition of marriage” (post 248) because that’s how one chose to define it. If there’s no universally excepted definition of marriage, then someone can chose to use another definition to make their point (as in the case of a racist person arguing that a union between a Caucasian-American and an African-American isn’t a marriage).
 
To simplify, if one chooses to define marriage a certain way, then one cannot argue that “this is simply the definition of marriage” (post 248) because that’s how one chose to define it.
“One” chooses? Definitions of societal institutions are not invented by individuals. They come about out of common, universal experience and understanding. Definitions are not arbitrary, but rather are a recognition of reality as it is. They articulate, name, and describe common norms, perception, and accurate language which has an actual basis in origin, which also includes a stable history of the term over time. Definitions reflect a consistency of understanding within the broadest possible base of the population for the language and culture in which those dictionaries, oral and written, are written and referred to.
If there’s no universally excepted definition of marriage, then someone can chose to use another definition to make their point (as in the case of a racist person arguing that a union between a Caucasian-American and an African-American isn’t a marriage).
This theoretical doesn’t exist; there’s no “if.” There particularly was no absence of universal definition before Loving vs. Virginia, but rather what had occurred was that the State had regressed to ignore the previously established, constitutionally recognized right to marry (which by definition was only heterosexually) across racial lines. It was a subversion of the definition that had to then be corrected (restored) by the Court to affirm that heterosexual marriage could not be restricted by race.

In the same way, ultra-modernists are now trying to rewrite history to eliminate the distinction of heterosexuality as the permanently understood essential factor in marriage.
 
Who determines that 2 + 2 = 4? There is reason and intelligibility in the universe - i.e., there are universals. And we ascribe to these universals words and symbols, but we have no power whatever to change these universals. Hence, 2 + 2 is always 4…
Except when 2 + 2 = 11
 
Go back to school.
I guess that you did not learn any computations in bases other than 10 in your “school.” Try 2 + 2 in base 3…

My point was, that you should not make claims about the “absolute truth” that are, it turns out, not actually absolute.
 
I guess that you did not learn any computations in bases other than 10 in your “school.” Try 2 + 2 in base 3…
Would that be 11?
My point was, that you should not make claims about the “absolute truth” that are, it turns out, not actually absolute.
My favorite line about that is 2 + 2 = 5 for very large values of 2.
 
I guess that you did not learn any computations in bases other than 10 in your “school.” Try 2 + 2 in base 3…

My point was, that you should not make claims about the “absolute truth” that are, it turns out, not actually absolute.
Actually, the salient point is that there is assumption of base 10 until such time as there is a legislative consensus (which often reflects also popular support) for the computational base to change, or even to shift within specified boundaires. For an individual or an interest-group to declare that change by fiat de-legitimatizes the announcement of a base change, and certainly de-legitimatizes it outside of the confined jurisdiction in which that change is sought.

Which means that re-definitions cannot be decided by interest-group edicts imposed on the entire country.
 
Actually, the salient point is that there is assumption of base 10 until such time as there is a legislative consensus (which often reflects also popular support) for the computational base to change, or even to shift within specified boundaires. For an individual or an interest-group to declare that change by fiat de-legitimatizes the announcement of a base change, and certainly de-legitimatizes it outside of the confined jurisdiction in which that change is sought.

Which means that re-definitions cannot be decided by interest-group edicts imposed on the entire country.
hahaha

“legislative consensus”???

That’s why I said “except for when…” God forbid someone remind a Catholic that 2 + 2 CAN equal 11!!!

In base 4, 2 + 2 = 10 (that’s Devil’s math, I know!)
 
“legislative consensus”???
It’s an analogy. Obviously you didn’t get that.
The discussion was about definitions and the fulcrum of meanings. I was switching back from math to the thread subject.
 
It’s an analogy. Obviously you didn’t get that.
The discussion was about definitions and the fulcrum of meanings. I was switching back from math to the thread subject.
Math was also brought up as an “analogy” by a Catholic poster. I’d be just as glad to drop analogies altogether, yours and his.
 
BobObob;7267604:
To simplify, if one chooses
to define marriage a certain way, then one cannot argue that “this is simply the definition of marriage” (post 248) because that’s how one chose to define it.

“One” chooses? Definitions of societal institutions are not invented by individuals. They come about out of common, universal experience and understanding. Definitions are not arbitrary, but rather are a recognition of reality as it is.
Language is ultimately created by man. Usually, this is done by many people over some time. For example, the word “gay” changed from meaning happy to meaning a homosexual man over time by the usage of this word by many people.

Regarding words being a recognition of reality as it is, that’s not necessarily so. Ultimately, men created words and chose to make them mean what they mean. However, those words may or may not be used in a way that conforms with reality.

Words seldom have one and only one meaning. When words do have multiple meanings, one chooses one usage of the word over the others. For example, you’d probably consider “marriage” to be between a man and one woman, yet in the Bible, there were many times were characters were married to multiple wives (sometimes even hundreds). In this case, one would have to concede that such “marriages”, like King Solomon having 700 wives (1 Kings 11:3), were, by this definition, not marriages at all, or they were marriages using a different definition. However, one would make a choice which definition to use either way.
There particularly was no absence of universal definition before Loving vs. Virginia, but rather what had occurred was that the State had regressed to ignore the previously established, constitutionally recognized right to marry (which by definition was only heterosexually) across racial lines.
The tenth amendment forbids the federal government from defining marriage. The tenth amendment forbids the federal government from exercising any power that the constitution doesn’t grant it. No where in the constitution have I read anything that would grant the government power to define marriage.

To turn back to the topic of this thread, I’m not a legal expert by any means, but homosexual partners aren’t allowed the same civil liberties in the US as heterosexual couples are.
 
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