F
FrDavid96
Guest
This is a both-yes-and-no.Thank you for that. I can see the difference you are making.
Do you think much these same accusations were made by the Jews as to the Christ and the New Testament?
On the one hand, many in Judaism (most but not all) were indeed expecting a Messiah, so the idea that the Messiah came is not in conflict with earlier revelation, but rather fulfills it; so the first answer is “no”. Entire books have been written on this, so it’s too lengthy to post, but a good start is to simply look at the Old Testament readings used at the Easter Vigil, and readings from the Prophets that we use in Advent.
On the other hand, the Messiah turned out to be other-than what some were expecting, so the answer “yes” also applies.
With regard to Islam, the message of Mohammed outright contradicts the revelation of Christianity and that of Judaism. That conflict goes all the way back (chronologically) to Abraham because Islam sees the favor of God passing through Abraham’s son Ishmael by his servant Haggai.
He didn’t “stop preparing the way” because that implies that He left it unfinished; rather He completed or fulfilled the way. He gave mankind everything that we need for salvation, and now it is up to individuals to accept that gift.I could add comments about God Preparing the Way from Mankind, but will leave it with the question, why do you think that God stopped preparing the way?
God Bless and Regards Tony
Let’s get back to the original question of the thread here. The OP was asking for some explanation, and that question was prompted by reading something from a source that tries to “prove” that Islam is false because of a contradiction within the Koran. Now, we can always find individual sentences that contradict each other within any religion’s sacred writings if we look hard enough, especially if we really want those conflicts to be there. But we have to make a distinction between these minor conflicts (single verses taken out of context) and the larger perspective of the religion.
Here’s the problem with the source that the OP is asking about. That type of writing starts with a false premise (a major one), that the writing IS the god (regardless of which religion). It starts with the premise that “the Bible IS God.” Now, I don’t mean the individual book sitting on a desk, but I mean the Bible in the abstract. The next step is to assume that because they think that the Bible IS the God of the Christians, then it’s necessary to assume that the Koran IS the God of Islam. From there, it’s pretty simple: just prove the Koran to be inconsistent, and that “proves” that the God of Islam does not exist. Only it doesn’t work that way. We have to keep in mind that authors like that are writing to a target audience: one that already accepts the false premise that “the book is the god.”
Now, when I say that they think of the Bible as being God, that’s literally true for only the rare extremist. However, many fundamentalists come so close to believing that the Bible is God that the distinction becomes almost indiscernible.