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NotWorthy
Guest
Didn’t Paul later revoke the eating stipulations that James instituted? I, too, am going by memory and I’m tired.Excepting if Peter made this ruling then Paul & co’s testimony that followed it would be superfluous.
Where did Paul over-ride this Council? From memory he rebuked Peter for going against what was agreed to
Yes, I know. When Peter speaks, you thin that’s the end of the matter, even though Paul then gives testimony and every one is silent as he speaks, and then James uses words like “It is my decision” This to you means “It is your decision”
Paul gives testimony? Paul merely tells of the wonders that are happening among the gentiles through the Apostles. He’s not arguing anything against what Peter has declared.A problem with possessive pronouns? What’s your’s is mine?
It’s also interestng, James doesn’t simply say, “It is my decision”, does he? He says, “Peter has spoken… His words agree with the prophets… it is my judgement, therefore.…”. It sounds like James is basing his decision on Peter’s words, after weighing them with Scriptures.
Although the Papacy has developed throughout the centuries, we see evidence of the authority in every century beginning with Clement in the first.Anyway, I find interesting that the RC Church claims that there’s been no change to the position of Pope.
Referring to the first Vatican Council the Pope said “Wherefore, in the decree of the Vatican Council as to the nature and authority of the primacy of the Roman Pontiff, no newly conceived opinion is set forth, but the venerable and constant belief of every age (Sess. iv., cap. 3).”
Pope Leo XIII
Satis Cognitum (On the Unity of the Church)
Encyclical promulgated on 29 June 1896
ewtn.com/library/ENCYC/L13SATIS.HTM
Except for that little “presidency” issue. You haven’t convinced Bishopite or myself of anything to the contrary.The modern idea of the Papacy however is absent from the writings of Ignatius. This man sees that there’s no one above bishop. He makes this explicit too.
Many Catholics also use as support the all too ‘neat’ phrase attributed to Augustine “Roma lecuta est; causa finita est.” (“Rome has spoken; the case is closed.”) This is supposed to be from Sermon 131:10. One apologist site* actually agrees that this is NOT a quote, but tries to suggest that it sums up the spirit of Augustine’s sermon.
You might want to read that web-page again. Here’s what it says:
**ames White, ** the Reformed Baptist apologist and anti-Catholic critic, wrote an article for his web site (apparently in response at least partly to this one) attacking the credibility of Catholic apologists such as Karl Keating and Steve Ray for their use of the common saying from St. Augustine: "Rome has spoken; the case is closed." While no one needs my defense (their books, research, scholarship, and integrity speak for themselves), I thought I would make some comment on White’s article. First, that this is an accurate summary (though not a direct quotation) of St. Augustine’s words is admitted in the notes of the Protestant edition of the Church Fathers (edited by Philip Schaff, among others): “Hence the famous words: ‘Roma locuta est, causa finita est,’ which is often quoted as an argument for the modern Vatican dogma of papal infallibility. But it is not found in this form, though we may admit it is an epigrammatic condensation of sentences of Augustine. The nearest approach to it is in his Sermon CXXXI [131]…” (NPNF Series 1, Volume 1, page 21)