I covered Our, God’s and the problem of foreknowledge and will in another thread, so I think it’s relevent to repoint it here as the question concerns free will.
*"Does God have free will?
In my opinion, it seems:
The will as a faculty of rationality should work with reason; and by consequence requires “practical knowledge” as the basis for praxis;
Of the two faculties of reason and will, the supremacy is in the will; and although by intellection the will can be preasured for this act or that; the will is essentially supreme;
Speaking causally, the will’s freedom nessecitates that it may not, especially in the context of God; be applied in the capacity of denying itself its own volition or nolition as that would entail a contradiction.
Therein, if the faculties of reason and knowlege are carried to infinity; their consequential praxis may only occur in the presence of with volition – knowing one’s future acts only encourages; not compels those same acts – presuming an infinite will. For compulsion and freedom are contradictory.
Therefore one is led to either;
God’s volition or nolition praxis is not infinite – ie; he has no free will
Wherein, God’s infinite knowlege forces his acts, which to me seems contrary to the idea of the free will.
God’s basis for praxis is not infinite – ie; his volition or nolition is not compelled
In which case, we must accept that God is not essentially omniscient, (which, by incidence makes his will only encouraged) but that this denies the predicates essential too God, and thus I find it repugnant.
God’s will supercedes his basis for praxis – ie; his exercised will is practically superiour to the reasoned encouragement of praxis.
The infinite reason, and infinite knowlege of God are distinct only formally, and their determination with regards to praxis only suggestive rather than compulsive; by which then - they are reconcilable to the notion of his superiour will
God’s will is not univocally or really identical with our experiential will; ie; God’s will differs from ours.
In which case any reconciliations or assumptions to the nature of its influence over an infinite reason/knowledge is purely speculative,
Does Man have free will?
It is safe to say that man appears to have free will; even our acts of will are suggested by intellection the ultimate election of will is independant of said intellection. This is experientially true in the same sense that one would hold that the external world is in some sense true – and besides, one can never be blamed for holding this view, as those who would contest it nessecarily feel that I am compelled to hold this view without will, and am consequentially blameless; even if incorrect.
Evidently, it is far easier to reconcile man’s will with freedom than God’s, for essentially the nature of omniscience does bear into praxis somewhat;
Can Man have free will and God know man’s future actions?
Yes, either;
The potential acts are numerically finite; if God’s wisdom is to be taken as infinite there is no reconciliation or explanation nessecary.
Or
An application of univocity with regards to intellection between finite and infinite entities is neither helpful nor particularily acheivable (from the side of the finite), and by consence therein, one is led to the earlier conclusion that; experientially we have free will."*
I’m sure glad I’m ignorant then.