Staying within the parameters of the question here (which didn’t ask about “judging” and all that)

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I agree with post #2, which accords with similar reading I have done.
I do believe that humans can be born with inclinations which may in some cases predispose (and predispose strongly even), but that these predispositions are not determinant. The very early years (my reading confirms) are critical in shaping sexuality. If the proper affirming role models are not there (“Nature Abhors a Vacuum”), an invitation, an impulse to seek an alternative, sets in as a reaction. Later, reaction combined with opportunity results in (positive) attraction, but the attraction ultimately is the end link in a chain which begins with a deficit. Attraction combined with pubescent hormones and the corresponding natural adolescent introspection, impressionability, hunger for peer relationships, and search for identity, all coalesce to create a conscious sexual “identity” which is then very difficult to reverse at that stage. (Not impossible, but it would seem from my reading, an uphill battle, very painful, and in most cases not successful.)
If it is also true that excess (female) hormones in our water have aggravated innate homosexual inclinations, that causes me a great deal of anger, as later self-identifying as gay deprives one of the primary joys of life:
natural parenthood. And for a Catholic, it consigns the person to life-long celibacy if he wants to remain a practicing Catholic. Deprived of sexual expression and natural heterosexual parenthood derived from a loving sexual union, combined with living as a minority seeking recognition, are not states that I would describe as “gay,” but rather, sad or at least unfortunate. I hope I don’t get flamed for that. I do not mean to offend. I mean that it must be no picnic to feel that that is one’s “identity,” if that is how one thinks of it. (Many gays do.) That is, it would not be a picnic if one has traditional values, feels a sense of belonging to the Catholic Church, etc.
I don’t want to get off on political topics, as that is not the OP’s question. I have read recently in more than one source that gay males have more physiological indications at birth that would tend toward later full development of homosexuality than females do. Hence, the aside about hormones & the water.
I’m all for a spectrum of male-female
expression, and male-female
roles, but those two things are not necessarily indelible markers for sexual orientation, which is different. A man can feel “effeminate” from birth and still be heterosexual. And the corresponding principle is true for females.