Do you have to repent to be forgiven

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We all know who bibleapologest is I just read somthing on his web page. That claims you do not have to repent to be forgiven and a woman wrote in asking John the question. I would like for her if she ever visits Johns Web page again maybe she will find a link to our forums so she can get a catholic response to her question. instead of his preverted response.

anyway many of you could probably respond to this page better than I could. Maybe John himself will chime in. here is the article
www.gideonsword.net/qanda/QandA/repent_forgiven.htm

I have to atleast give John credit to linking the forums on his webpage. Most people would not even give a catholic response to there disagrements with the Church. So I would have to Thank John for that, giveing us catholics a chance to respond to his arguments. Maybe we will eventually have a catholic response to all his Q/A page on his own webpage. again thanks John for atleast given us a chance to rebute your claims and defend what we really teach.
 
I guess the Baptist church feels you do not need to repent to be forgiven:confused: …makes no sense but hey that is what** they** believe (you do realize that he is Baptist, right?) …
 
Repentance is key to being forgiven; a person who approaches someone to ask forgiveness is, in essence, then repentant of what he did. A person who is not sorry for what he did will not ask for forgiveness, and hence could not be forgiven. It’s actually simple, common sense.
 
Although many Christian religions teach that some act, or change of heart is expected from a person to atone for their sin, there is nothing a person can do to completely “make up” for their sins. If it were possible for a person to “make up” for their sins by simply repenting, why would Jesus have to die on the cross? Jesus suffered and died for us, and took upon Himself the sins of the whole world. Isaiah chapter 53 prophesied the death of Jesus and what it meant:
by us believing that we have to repent does that take away from Jesus dieing on the cross as John is seems to think it does?
To be saved, one can only fully trust in what Jesus did. Repentance can’t save you any more than performing some religious act, or feeding the poor, or doing God some service. God actually condemns using righteous acts to appease Him in Isaiah chapter 1:13 God says that acts of righteousness and repentance to atone for sin is actually sinful (iniquity) itself.
But dosent the bible say to show works of your repentance. And how can any rightousness be sinfull?
 
Odell,
by us believing that we have to repent does that take away from Jesus dieing on the cross as John is seems to think it does?
Repentance of sin, to the effect of salvation is a work on our part to achieve what Christ already did… He alone atoned for sin.
But dosent the bible say to show works of your repentance. And how can any rightousness be sinfull?
Yes, we should show works… but that is only required “after” salvation.

Righteous acts are not sinful of themselves, but to act righteously without actually having the righteousness of Christ imputed to you IS SIN. That is why I quoted Isaiah 1:13 in the article…
Isa 1:12 When ye come to appear before me, who hath required this at your hand, to tread my courts?
Isa 1:13 Bring no more vain oblations; incense is an abomination unto me; the new moons and sabbaths, the calling of assemblies, I cannot away with; [it is] iniquity, even the solemn meeting.
In verse 12 quoted above, God says… “who hath required [you]… to tread my courts”. That is what repentance of sin is, when you neglect the payment of Christ for your sins. It is the same as approaching God as an unrighteous person. You don’t have any RIGHT to tread His courts. But Jesus does, that is why we need Him.

I have posted an article on repentance that Turtullian wrote. He really gives a good explication of repentance.

Turtullian on Repentance

John
www.gideonsword.net
 
John, since you quoted Isaiah, please read Is. 58. It expands a little on what you quoted and goes on to explain exactly what “works” God requires of us. It’s difficult to read that and still believe that we don’t have to do anything. Moreover, God, speaking through Isaiah, says that He won’t even listen to our prayers until we are obedient. Tough stuff in that little two-page chapter. Just try to put your current beliefs aside for a few minutes and read the chapter for what it says. It’s pretty clear, just as is Mt. 25: 31-46.

Also in Matthew, chapter 7 or 14, I forgot which, does not Jesus tell us to make things right with our brother before offering our gifts? How do you interpret that passage in regard to what we have to do?
 
Yes, we should show works… but that is only required “after” salvation.
After salvation? This notion is contradicted by John 3:19-21:

And this is the verdict, that the light came into the world, but people preferred darkness to light, because their works were evil. For everyone who does wicked things hates the light and does not come toward the light, so that his works might not be exposed.
**But whoever lives the truth comes to the light, so that his works may be clearly seen as done in God.**Thus, far from works only going after one is saved, John 3:21 is actually saying the opposite–that whoever does God’s will would come to the Light, for it is the Light which illuminates what he has already done.
 
Well, let’s look at what the Word of God has to say about this.

**Luke 13:**1: There were some present at that very time who told him of the Galileans whose blood Pilate had mingled with their sacrifices.
2: And he answered them, “Do you think that these Galileans were worse sinners than all the other Galileans, because they suffered thus?
3: I tell you, No; but unless you repent you will all likewise perish.
4: Or those eighteen upon whom the tower in Silo’am fell and killed them, do you think that they were worse offenders than all the others who dwelt in Jerusalem?
5: I tell you, No; but unless you repent you will all likewise perish.”

Mark 1:14: Now after John was arrested, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of God,
15: and saying, “The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand; repent, and believe in the gospel.”

Matthew 21:28: “What do you think? A man had two sons; and he went to the first and said, Son, go and work in the vineyard today.' 29: And he answered, I will not’; but afterward he repented and went.
30: And he went to the second and said the same; and he answered, `I go, sir,’ but did not go.
31: Which of the two did the will of his father?” They said, “The first.” Jesus said to them, "Truly, I say to you, the tax collectors and the harlots go into the kingdom of God before you.
32: For John came to you in the way of righteousness, and you did not believe him, but the tax collectors and the harlots believed him; and even when you saw it, you did not afterward repent and believe him.

Acts 2:37: Now when they heard this they were cut to the heart, and said to Peter and the rest of the apostles, “Brethren, what shall we do?”
38: And Peter said to them, “Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.
39: For the promise is to you and to your children and to all that are far off, every one whom the Lord our God calls to him.”

So according to the Word of God, John has a serious problem because he professes to believe that the Bible is the inspired Word of God.

Either Our Lord and the apostles were messed up somehow and these are not Gospel messages, or,

John is dead wrong and repentence is necessary for salvation and, (by his own inference), our works do indeed play a part in our salvation.

If salvation is mine without repentence, then having professed my belief in Christ, I’ll meet all you guys at that topless bar where the hookers hang out in about 30 minutes, ok? :eek:
Pax Domini sit semper vobiscum,
 
The main problem with bibleapologist’s articles, is that he just makes things up.

Take for instance this paragraph from a short article by bibleapologist that appears on his website:

The idea that baptism is necessary for salvation came from the teachings of Augustine in the 4th century AD. Basically, Augustine taught that before a person could be saved, that person had to repent of his or her sins and concede to the authority of and sovereignty of God. In the case of the Catholic Institution, they are God’s representative on earth, and therefore to be saved you must concede to the authority of the church. Baptism (in the Catholic Institution) is a means to “prove” your concession, it is an “act” of repentance or a turning away from your previous way of life, and a profession of your intention to obey the Catholic Institution.

gideonsword.net/articles/BibleDoctrineandTheology/BDTarticles/baptismandrepentance.htm

Church Militant has already given some of the Biblical evidence which contradicts bibleapologist’s claims.

Here are some more:

1 Peter 3:21 - Peter expressly writes that “baptism, corresponding to Noah’s ark, now saves you; not as a removal of dirt from the body, but for a clear conscience. “ Hence, the verse demonstrates that baptism is salvific (it saves us), and deals with the interior life of the person (purifying the conscience, like Heb. 10:22), and not the external life (removing dirt from the body). Many scholars believe the phrase “not as a removal of dirt from the body” is in reference to the Jewish ceremony of circumcision (but, at a minimum, shows that baptism is not about the exterior, but interior life). Baptism is now the “circumcision” of the new Covenant (Col. 2:11-12), but it, unlike the old circumcision, actually saves us, as Noah and his family were saved by water.

Acts 22:16 - further, Ananias’ phrase “wash away” comes from the Greek word “apolouo.” “Apolouo” means an actual cleansing which removes sin. It is not a symbolic covering up of sin. Even though Jesus chose Paul directly in a heavenly revelation, Paul had to be baptized to have his sins washed away.

Mark 16:16 - Jesus said “He who believes AND is baptized will be saved.” Jesus says believing is not enough. Baptism is also required. This is because baptism is salvific, not just symbolic. The Greek text also does not mandate any specific order for belief and baptism, so the verse proves nothing about a “believer’s baptism.”

Acts 8:12-13; 36; 10:47 - if belief is all one needs to be saved, why is everyone instantly baptized after learning of Jesus?

Acts 16:15; 31-33; 18:8; 19:2,5 - these texts present more examples of people learning of Jesus, and then immediately being baptized. If accepting Jesus as personal Lord and Savior is all one needs to do to be saved, then why does everyone in the early Church immediately seek baptism?

Acts 9:18 - Paul, even though he was directly chosen by Christ and immediately converted to Christianity, still had to be baptized to be forgiven his sin. This is a powerful text which demonstrates the salvific efficacy of water baptism, even for those who decide to give their lives to Christ.
 
And what did the pre-Augustine Christians believe?

ST. JUSTIN MARTYR

For Christ also said, ‘Except ye be born again, ye shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven.’ Now, that it is impossible for those who have once been born to enter into their mothers’ wombs, is manifest to all. And how those who have sinned and repent shall escape their sins, is declared by Esaias the prophet, as I wrote above; he thus speaks: 'Wash you, make you clean; put away the evil of your doings from your souls; learn to do well…And though your sins be as scarlet, I will make them white like wool; and though they be as crimson, I will make them white as snow…And for this [rite] we have learned from the apostles this reason. Since at our birth we were born without our own knowledge or choice, by our parents coming together, and were brought up in bad habits and wicked training; in order that we may not remain the children of necessity and of ignorance, but may become the children of choice and knowledge, and may obtain in the water the remission of sins formerly committed, there is pronounced over him who chooses to be born again, and has repented of his sins, the name of God the Father and Lord of the universe; he who leads to the layer the person that is to be washed calling him by this name alone…And this washing is called illumination, because they who learn these things are illuminated in their understandings. And in the name of Jesus Christ, who was crucified under Pontius Pilate, and in the name of the Holy Ghost, who through the prophets foretold all things about Jesus, he who is illuminated is washed." *Justin Martyr, First Apology, 61 (A.D. 110-165). *

“Moreover, the things proceeding from the waters were blessed by God, that this also might be a sign of men’s being destined to receive repentance and remission of sins, through the water and laver of regeneration,–as many as come to the truth, and are born again, and receive blessing from God.” Theopilus of Antioch, To Autolycus, 2:16 (A.D. 181).

" ‘And dipped himself,’ says [the Scripture], ‘seven times in Jordan.’ It was not for nothing that Naaman of old, when suffering from leprosy, was purified upon his being baptized, but it served as an indication to us. For as we are lepers in sin, we are made clean, by means of the sacred water and the invocation of the Lord, from our old transgressions; being spiritually regenerated as new-born babes, even as the Lord has declared: ‘Except a man be born again through water and the Spirit, he shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven.’" *Irenaeus, Fragment, 34 (A.D. 190). *

“But give me now your best attention, I pray you, for I wish to go back to the fountain of life, and to view the fountain that gushes with healing. The Father of immortality sent the immortal Son and Word into the world, who came to man in order to wash him with water and the Spirit; and He, begetting us again to incorruption of soul and body, breathed into us the breath (spirit) of life, and endued us with an incorruptible panoply. If, therefore, man has become immortal, he will also be God. And if he is made God by water and the Holy Spirit after the regeneration of the layer he is found to be also joint-heir with Christ after the resurrection from the dead. Wherefore I preach to this effect: Come, all ye kindreds of the nations, to the immortality of the baptism.” *Hippolytus of Rome, Discourse on the Holy Theophany, 8 (A.D. 217). *
 
More pre-Augustine Christians:

“But you will perhaps say, What does the, baptism of water contribute towards the worship of God? In the first place, because that which hath pleased God is fulfilled. In the second place, because, when yon are regenerated and born again of water and of God, the frailty of your former birth, which you have through men, is cut off, and so at length you shall be able to attain salvation; hut otherwise it is impossible. For thus hath the true prophet testified to its with an oath: 'Verily I say to you, That unless a man is born again of water, he shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven. Therefore make haste; for there is in these waters a certain power of mercy which was borne upon them at the beginning, and acknowledges those who are baptized under the name of the threefold sacrament, and rescues them from future punishments, presenting as a gift to God the souls that are consecrated by baptism. Betake yourselves therefore to these waters, for they alone can quench the violence of the future fire; and he who delays to approach to them, it is evident that the idol of unbelief remains in him, and by it be is prevented from hastening to the waters which confer salvation. For whether you be righteous or unrighteous, baptism is necessary for you in every respect: for the righteous, that perfection may be accomplished in him, and he may be born again to God; for the unrighteous, that pardon may he vouchsafed him of the sins which he has committed in ignorance. Therefore all should hasten to he born again to God without delay, because the end of every one’s life is uncertain.” *Recognitions of Clement, 6:9 (A.D. 221). *

“'But perhaps some one will say, What does it contribute to piety to be baptized with water? In the first place, because you do that which is pleasing to God; and in the second place, being born again to God of water, by reason of fear you change your first generation, which is of lust, and thus you are able to obtain salvation. But otherwise it is impossible. For thus the prophet has sworn to us, saying, 'Verily I say to you, Unless ye be regenerated by living water into the name of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, you shall not enter the kingdom of heaven. Wherefore approach. For there is there something that is merciful from the beginning, home upon the water, and rescues from the future punishment those who are baptized with the thrice blessed invocation, offering as gifts to God the good deeds of the baptized whenever they are done after their baptism. Wherefore flee to the waters, for this alone can quench the violence of fires. He who will not now come to it still bears the spirit of strife, on account of which he will not approach the living water for his own salvation.” *Pseudo-Clementines, Homily 11:26 (A.D. 221). *

“The Church received from the Apostles the tradition of giving Baptism even to infants. For the Apostles, to whom were committed the secrets of divine mysteries, knew that there is in everyone the innate stains of sins, which must be washed away through water and the Spirit.” *Origen, Commentary on Romans, 5:9 (A.D. 244). *

“[W]hen they come to us and to the Church which is one, ought to be baptized, for the reason that it is a small matter to ‘lay hands on them that they may receive the Holy Ghost,’ unless they receive also the baptism of the Church. For then finally can they be fully sanctified, and be the sons of God, if they be born of each sacrament; since it is written, ‘Except a man be born again of water, and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.’…[O]nly baptism of the holy Church, by divine regeneration, for the kingdom of God, may be born of both sacraments, because it is written, ‘Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.’” *Cyprian, To Stephen, 71:72 (A.D. 253). *

“And in the Gospel our Lord Jesus Christ spoke with His divine voice, saying, “Except a man be born again of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God.” This is the Spirit which from the beginning was borne over the waters; for neither can the Spirit operate without the water, nor the water without the Spirit…Unless therefore they receive saving baptism in the Catholic Church, which is one, they cannot be saved, but will be condemned with the carnal in the judgment of the Lord Christ.” Council of Carthage VII (A.D. 258).

Bibleapologist believes one must neither repent nor receive regenerative baptism and his poor scholarship reflects that belief by just making things up. The New Testament and the pre-Augustine Christian testimonies give witness to bibleapologists errors.

More pre-Augustine Christian quotes can be found here:

scripturecatholic.com/baptism.html#tradition-III
 
I went to the website to understand what the author John reply’s to the question, let’s hope i didn’t understand his message wrongly. I believe he is not actually saying we do not repent for our sin but he find that doing righteous act is not the correct way, becoz i guess he is making an asumption that everyone can simply do righteous act aftering knowing they have Sin against God so by doing righteous act, God will probably spare them. However this does not mean it is really from their bottom of their heart they have deep remote about their wrong doing. Thus John’s last part mentioned that is Holy Spirit working the repentance within us This answer the question that is through Holy Spirit that dwell inside us, that we have a heart to repent our sin and not by individual’s will to do it.

So when one’s repent we just cannot do it just for the sake of doing it, because it is as good as you are doing nothing!!!
 
I think that a very relevent point is whether repentance is required for initial salvation and whether ongoing repentance is necessary for the “saved” person. I think that most Christians believe and teach that one must repent in order to be saved and the verses ChurchMilitant quoted will be pointed to by most Protestants as referring only to initial repentance for salvation.

However, where we differ from many Protestants, Baptists in particular, is the role of repentance after one is “saved”. Given the teaching on mortal sin in the Catholic Church, we obviously believe that repentance (along with explicit sacramental forgiveness for mortal sins) is required to be in a state of grace. However, the Baptist will say that one should have a repentant spirit for any sin committed, but they will also say that those sins and the presence or absence of repentance for those sins has no effect on salvation.

My question is then, why repent? Why even be concerned about sin at all? To say “in order to please God” is an insufficient answer. If there are no consequences, what difference does it make.

Clearly, this is contradictory and cannot be defended by the whole of Scripture.
 
It is obvious that repentance is required for salvation, so is love.

Sorry if this should be a new topic… I thought it would fit into this discussion easily.

My question to members of any non-catholic christian faith is. When you do sin, is that sin only between you and God, or does that sin involve the body of Christ? If you sin is that another lash of the whip against Jesus for you? So you sin against the body of Christ, I am part of the body of Christ as all believers as you believe. Are you not sinning against the christian community as well? Should you not ask for forgiveness from the community as well? How do you do that?
 
by us believing that we have to repent does that take away from Jesus dieing on the cross as John is seems to think it does?

Fire gives warmth. Warmth is not fire - does that make fire useless ?​

He’s confusing:
  1. Fire having an effect that it ought to have - it is meant to warm people; that is one of the purposes of fire in the first place
with
  1. the fact that fire & warmth are not the same thing*.*
So:
  1. Repentance for sin is a result of the Atonement made by Christ - previously, we could not repent, because we were were dead in our sins & not “at one” with God. It is something which, because even Christians are not yet fully perfected by grace, we need to do - that is why He “lives to make intercession for us”; that is something He does for His members now, even though they are justified already by His Blood.
  2. The wrong thing, that John is trying to avoid, is the idea that we can add anything to the work of Christ. We cannot. His mistake is to see a result of that finished work, which is effective for us even now, as being an addition to it: it’s like mistaking walking, for adding a third leg to a man. ##
But dosent the bible say to show works of your repentance. And how can any rightousness be sinfull?

I don’t which verse you have in mind - you might mean several 🙂​

As for sinfulness & righteousness - yes, there can be such works, because the righteousness of the Christian is Christ Himself, as St. Paul says:

;
1Cr 1:31 therefore, as it is written, "Let him who boasts, boast of the Lord."Christ Jesus, whom God made our wisdom, our righteousness


Righteousness not based on the overflowing righteousness of Christ, is like a dirty rag - it is valueless. It cannot be anything else. It is not really righteousness at all. ##
 
Gottle of Geer,
  1. The wrong thing, that John is trying to avoid, is the idea that we can add anything to the work of Christ. We cannot. His mistake is to see a result of that finished work, which is effective for us even now, as being an addition to it: it’s like mistaking walking, for adding a third leg to a man.
I think it would be good for anyone commenting on that particular article to read it first. Odell mis-quoted me in his first post by stating that I said to repent is to take away from Jesus dying on the cross.

Here is the paragraph that Odell attempted to quote…
Although many Christian religions teach that some act, or change of heart is expected from a person to atone for their sin, there is nothing a person can do to completely “make up” for their sins. If it were possible for a person to “make up” for their sins by simply repenting, why would Jesus have to die on the cross? Jesus suffered and died for us, and took upon Himself the sins of the whole world. Isaiah chapter 53 prophesied the death of Jesus and what it meant:
That article was only addressing salvation, and the lack of the need for repentance of sin required for salvation. The only time I addressed repentance “after” salvation was in the final statement in that same article…
But to be saved doesn’t mean we are automatically Christ-like. That comes with us being willing, and the Holy Spirit working repentance within us.
John
www.gideonsword.net
 
Here are some other articles I have written concerning the subject.

Q and A - Repent or Perish
I will only concentrate on this, since if we go into baptism we’ll go into a tangent that’s covered in another thread, and our focus here is merely about repentance. I noticed how you compartmentalize repentance–that there’s one type of repentance here, another there, etc. I read the relevant passages, and such compartmentalization isn’t there, explicitly nor implicitly. It would be nice if it is there implicitly, but it isn’t even there. Such a notion–to compartmentalize repentance–seems to smack on avoiding it entirely, as if the Christian life should mean we should not repent at all for our sins. The Bible is flat-out clear in this one then: repent your sins, period. It doesn’t make any distinction on repentance–as to repentance to non-believers, believers, etc. That cannot be gleened in the passages you quoted, I’m sorry to say. To do so would stretch those passages out of the context they were written.
 
Church Militant,
Luke 13:1: There were some present at that very time who told him of the Galileans whose blood Pilate had mingled with their sacrifices.
2: And he answered them, “Do you think that these Galileans were worse sinners than all the other Galileans, because they suffered thus?
3: I tell you, No; but unless you repent you will all likewise perish.
4: Or those eighteen upon whom the tower in Silo’am fell and killed them, do you think that they were worse offenders than all the others who dwelt in Jerusalem?
5: I tell you, No; but unless you repent you will all likewise perish.”
I would like to urge you to read this short article I wrote concerning that passage.
Mark 1:14: Now after John was arrested, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of God,
15: and saying, “The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand; repent, and believe in the gospel.”
This is to assume that those people were in a state of “unbelief”. So to repent, was not to forsake their sin, but to turn away from their current state of unbelief.
Matthew 21:28:
That passage is only talking about a person doing the will of God. That repentance is another situation where the person had a “change of mind”
Acts 2:37:
Again, there is no indication whatsoever that Peter was referring to “putting away sinfulness” to appease God. Peter was only calling for a “change of mind” toward salvation. This change of mind would be to believe, and have faith by which righteousness is imputed.

It is the righteousness of Christ which justifies us, not repentance of sin.

We are called to be obedient to God though, and “repent” after we are saved, but this is not to recieve justification, we are to repent out of love for Christ.
Joh 14:15 If ye love me, keep my commandments.
John
www.gideonsword.net
 
When confronted with an outrageous debt (Ten thousand talents), one of the servants in the parable tried to repent in verse 26. You’ll find that the servant asked for patience to pay back the whole debt. Isn’t that what “repentance of sin” is? Isn’t repentance in this situation a type of work to regain right standing with the one to whom the servant was indebted? That is what we do when we try to “repent” of our sin debt to God by vowing to do right and obey His commands. The only problem is, the debt is too great to pay back. Matthew 18:27 tells us that the the lord in that same parable, when he heard the pleading of the servant to allow him to pay back the debt, had compassion on his servant. I would like to ask you why would he have compassion on his servant? Was it because that servant had a good heart and wanted to pay back the master and that was good enough? No! the passage does not say that the lord was “pleased” with his repentance, the passage says that his lord had “compassion” on him.
Let’s consider the situation that this servant was in. He was a simple servant that owed a huge amount of money (ten thousand talents is equivalent to about one million dollars in our terms). Not only could that servant have never been able to pay back that amount of money… in fact, that simple servant could not have even been able to comprehend how much money ten thousand talents were. His lord had compassion on him because he understood that this servant, could have never paid back all that he owed, and he understood that this servant, by his intention to pay it back, didn’t understand how much he owed. So the lord just forgave the debt. The servant left there not owing anything at all.
John read verse 34 “Then in anger the master handed him over to the torturers UNTIL he should pay back the WHOLE debt.”." Dont sound like he could not have paid him back in this verse now does it. This is another one of your flawed interpritations.

verse 35 says “So will my heavenly Father do to you unless each of you forgives his brother from his heart.” We to will have to PAY ALL our debt if we do not forgive others.
 
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