A general question with respect to interpretation –
Interpretation of tongues, indeed, tongues in general, seem to be relegated to something which is strictly spoken.
Obviously modern tongues are not a written phenomenon; even in the Bible, all accounts of people speaking tongues (i.e. languages) are spoken, not written. I suspect this is because, in general, most people could not read or write their own language, let alone a foreign one. BUT – it would stand to reason (I think) that if an utterance were faithfully repeated, even say, a week after the original were given, it should still be able to be “interpreted”, or is that not the case??
i.e, if one were to transcribe an utterance and repeat it using the same intonation and voicing, would it be able to be interpreted say if it were read two weeks down the road, or can interpretation only be done with the ‘original’ utterance??
I don’t know if this has ever been ‘tested’, as it were, but in theory anyway, one would think it wouldn’t matter.
Not sure if that makes sense the way I wrote it, but just curious.