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Much of the information was passed on by word of mouth as well.Indeed. How many thousands of years passed between the events described in Genesis and the writing of the actual book that recorded those events?
Much of the information was passed on by word of mouth as well.Indeed. How many thousands of years passed between the events described in Genesis and the writing of the actual book that recorded those events?
According to Rabbinic Judaism, the oral Torah, oral Law, or oral tradition (Hebrew: תורה שבעל פה, Torah she-be-`al peh) is the oral tradition received in conjunction with the written Torah (and the rest of the Hebrew Bible), which is known in this context as the “written Torah” (Hebrew: תורה שבכתב, Torah she-bi-khtav). The Mishnah is the record of the oral Torah.
According to Rabbinic Judaism, Moses and the Israelites received an oral as well as the written Torah (“teaching”) from God at Mount Sinai. The books of the Tanakh (Hebrew Bible) were relayed with an oral tradition passed on by the scholarly and other religious leaders of each generation, and according to classical Rabbinic interpretation, the teachings of the oral law are a guide to that interpretation of the written law which is considered the authoritative reading. Jewish law and tradition thus is not based on a strictly literal reading of the Tanakh, but on combined oral and written traditions. Further, the basis of halakha (Jewish law) is the premise that the written law is inherently bound together with an oral law.
The “oral law” was ultimately recorded in the Mishnah, the Talmud and Midrash.
The laws transmitted to Moses were contained in the Torah written down on scrolls. The explanation however, was not allowed to be written down. Jews were obligated to speak the explanation and pass it on orally to students, children, and fellow adults. It was thus initially forbidden to write and publish the Oral Law: written material would be incomplete and subject to misinterpretation (and abuse).
After great debate, however, this restriction was lifted. Following the destruction of the Second Temple and the fall of Jerusalem, it became apparent that the Palestine community and its learning were threatened, and that publication was the only way to ensure that the law could be preserved; see Timeline of Jewish history.
Wow. Does he not realize that Tertullian wrote all of these things after slipping into the heresy of Montanism?“If” Jesus had blood brothers & sisters, then…
In the thread linked above, he sullies Mary and the relationship between Jesus and Mary using excerpts from the writings of Tertullian, while rejecting all the writings of any other early Church father, including the beliefs of the original reformers. I have asked, repeatedly, for any other evidence showing the belief existed through the years as he professes it to be. Those requests have gone unanswered. If what he professes was God’s truth, surely He would not have left generation after generation without His truth for a much more modern generation to receive it. The only other option is to say, ‘God couldn’t protect His truth for ALL generations.’
Do you not know that you are Eve? The judgment of God upon this sex lives on in this age; therefore, necessarily the guilt should live on also. You are the gateway of the devil; you are the one who unseals the curse of that tree, and you are the first one to turn your back on the divine law; you are the one who persuaded him whom the devil was not capable of corrupting; you easily destroyed the image of God, Adam. Because of what you deserve, that is, death, even the Son of God had to die.
Hi, RadicalI had said: It is my suggestion that we evaluate the claim on the basis of who introduced the claim, when was it done, where was it done and why was it done…I would do something similar WRT answering the question of whether Paul taught the Catholic doctrines of Mary (outside of his epistles)…the historical evidence makes it unlikely, given the silence in the first centuries. Take another tradition for example…that Paul authored 1 Corinthians and that it reliably reflects his teaching…we can easily find non-Christian scholars who would endorse both ideas based on the historical record…contrast that with the situation regarding the ImCon and the BoAs
that is part of the who and when of the analysis that I suggested…if the first who lived hundreds of years after the fact, then that gap allows for the possibility that it was an innovation and not an original beliefThe Early Church Fathers described her as without sin and,…
the preserving of relics has been notoriously untrustworthy…given the fact that the bodies of most saints were kept and honored,
if she as as venerated then as now, the place of her assumption would also have been a place of pilgrimage…any where Mary now allegedly appears becomes a pilgrimage spot, however, back in the first two centuries there wasn’t a lot of focus on her… I find it highly unlikely that the body of the Virgin Mary wouldn’t have been kept and her tomb made a place of pilgrimage
the historical evidence…again, please keep this in mind…the non-Christian historian could admit that these beliefs were with the Church from the very start w/o needing to also accept that they are truthful…but do you see those non-Christian historians (who would also deny the historicity of the resurrection) concluding that the Marian doctrines were there in the first century (like the belief in the bodily resurrection)? Surely you must see that a difference exists in the respective evidence…and surely you should be able to understand how that difference in evidence could lead to different conclusions.What supports these new doctrines that she was sinful and that she wasn’t assumed into Heaven?
You must have missed the other thread so ley me help out with your History here.that is part of the who and when of the analysis that I suggested…if the first who lived hundreds of years after the fact, then that gap allows for the possibility that it was an innovation and not an original belief
no, but I believe that man can choose to walk away from the truth…the scriptures are very clear on thatThe historical evidence makes it unlikely? So you believe God could not protect His truth, …
the truth is still available…just not where you think it is…or did not provide His truth for all generations?
I know that you and your Church like to make this sort of claim…WRT the perpetual virginity you couldn’t produce any evidence of that teaching for the first few generations (up to about 170 AD +/-). WRT the bodily assumption and the immaculate conception how many generations (at the start) do you skip again and gloss over with your “generation after generation” claim?There are the writings of the early Church fathers, throughout the years. The teaching was taught for generation after generation to the present day in the Catholic Church.
I have never claimed that such existed. We all know the history (though some better than others) Once a belief in Mary was adopted by the hierarchy of the Church that belief was enforced by intimidation and violence. Dissenters were persecuted. A belief that is supported by threat and the sword is not to be admired for its longevity. The question of whether the teaching can be traced back to the apostolic era or whether it is a later innovation won’t be answered by focusing on the endorsement of that belief by the ECFs of much later centuries. That endorsement, for the most part, is only evidence of that belief and the development of it, well after the fact.Show us unbroken teachings, as you say it was, to the present day.
well, partly b/c I find your questions disingenuous…but for the most part, I have answered your questionsI don’t see why you didn’t respond to this on the other thread,…
the perpetual virginity is the same as the immaculate conception?…with the SAME topic.
the same drum applies…there is that absence of the teaching in the first generations that you can’t explain away…and that fact seems to irk you considerably.You prefer to come to another thread of the SAME topic and beat the same drums, but not respond to requests…
Hello, thanks for your pleasant tone…Hi, Radical
Might I suggest, as St. Paul describes, Mary in Romans 5:18-19,
“…Just as through one transgression condemnation came upon all, so through one righteous act, acquittal and life came to all. For just as through the disobedience of one person the many were made sinners, so through the obedience of one the many will be made righteous.”
I understand that to be a description of JesusSeems a pretty large roll and Mary gets the accolades from St. Paul even though he didn’t name her.
I don’t see Mary in that verse either…and St. John in,Rev.11:19, where he has a vision of th Ark of the covenant. The very next verse in Rev. 12: 1,< he sees this> and “a great sign appeared in heaven; a woman clothed with the sun, and the moon was under her feet, and upon her head a crown of twelve stars.”
Where was this truth, as you profess it and not where I would think it would be, for generation after generation? The Church has records of heretical challenges all throughout it’s history. Where was this challenge, again as you profess it to be?the truth is still available…just not where you think it is
well, partly b/c I find your questions disingenuous…but for the most part, I have answered your questions
Actually, what I find ‘irksome’ is when one ignores questions, points and requests put forth to maintain their steady drum beat.the same drum applies…there is that absence of the teaching in the first generations that you can’t explain away…and that fact seems to irk you considerably.
Then you could say that the New Testament canon is an innovation, because it wasn’t settled until 393 AD.that is part of the who and when of the analysis that I suggested…if the first who lived hundreds of years after the fact, then that gap allows for the possibility that it was an innovation and not an original belief
According to who? The iconoclasts who wanted to destroy them all?the preserving of relics has been notoriously untrustworthy
You do realize what happened in Jerusalem in 70 AD, don’t you? It’s kind of hard to make any kind of pilgrimage to the Holy Land when there are angry Romans trying to kill you.if she as as venerated then as now, the place of her assumption would also have been a place of pilgrimage…
There wasn’t a lot of focus on the Holy Spirit in the first two centuries either. Why isn’t there any substantial evidence of any devotion to the Holy Spirit during that time period? What conclusion would you draw from that and why is that a different conclusion than you are drawing about Mary?any where Mary now allegedly appears becomes a pilgrimage spot, however, back in the first two centuries there wasn’t a lot of focus on her
I don’t see how anyone can read Revelation 12 and compare the Marian doctrines to Mormonism with a straight face.some Protestants would see no more credibility in the Venerators of Mary than they would in Joseph Smith…if you can understand why someone would think it acceptable to dismiss JS’s claims, then you should be able to figure out why someone would think it acceptable to dismiss certain claims wrt Mary
“Mary and Eve, two people without guilt, two simple people, were identical. Later, however, one became the cause of our death, the other the cause of our life.” --St. Ephraemthat is part of the who and when of the analysis that I suggested…if the first who lived hundreds of years after the fact, then that gap allows for the possibility that it was an innovation and not an original belief
So? Even if the bodies aren’t their real bodies, why wouldn’t anyone have even claimed to have her body? There is an incident that the Emperor Marcian asked for her relics from the Patriarch of Jersusalem in the 400’s and was told that she had been assumed three days after her death. Why would he make such an outlandish claim, which would bring less fame and pilgrims to Jerusalem, were it not true?the preserving of relics has been notoriously untrustworthy
The place of her assumption was her tomb. She was assumed directly outside of it.if she as as venerated then as now, the place of her assumption would also have been a place of pilgrimage…any where Mary now allegedly appears becomes a pilgrimage spot,
Really? Interesting that you were living in those times when the most sacred Christian doctrines were generally kept hidden so that Pagans would not mock them.however, back in the first two centuries there wasn’t a lot of focus on her
Are you a non-Christian historian (who would also hold that, though the Virgin Birth was with the Church from the very start, it wasn’t a real historical event) or a Christian?the historical evidence…again, please keep this in mind…the non-Christian historian could admit that these beliefs were with the Church from the very start w/o needing to also accept that they are truthful…but do you see those non-Christian historians (who would also deny the historicity of the resurrection) concluding that the Marian doctrines were there in the first century (like the belief in the bodily resurrection)? Surely you must see that a difference exists in the respective evidence…and surely you should be able to understand how that difference in evidence could lead to different conclusions.
If you do not see Mary in the Woman of the Apocalypse, who do you see? Who else gave birth to Christ (Revelation 12.5)?I don’t see Mary in that verse either
God Bless
God’s people…both Israel and the ChurchIf you do not see Mary in the Woman of the Apocalypse, who do you see? Who else gave birth to Christ (Revelation 12.5)?
Daughters (Israel and the Church) do not conceive and bear their fathers (God).God’s people…both Israel and the Church
If the Church and/or Israel couldn’t conceive and bear, then Mary, who is but one member of the Church and/or Israel, would be even more incapableDaughters (Israel and the Church) do not conceive and bear their fathers (God).
You mean who was the “woman” of Gen 3:15…at a time when there was only one woman who existed? I can’t help but note that at verse 12 Adam blames the “woman” and that woman is Eve. At verse 13 God addresses the “woman” and that woman is Eve. At verse 16 God addresses the “woman” and that woman is Eve. So then, when God mentions the “woman” at verse 15, I have to conclude that it is Eve yet again…it seems more than obvious from over here.How about Genesis 3:15? Who do you say this Woman is?
The question is not whether or not Israel or the Church can bear children; it is whether they could bear a specific Child.If the Church and/or Israel couldn’t conceive and bear, then Mary, who is but one member of the Church and/or Israel, would be even more incapable
It is actually more than obvious that this Woman CANNOT be Eve because Eve was not at enmity (mutual opposition, click for Webster’s definition) with the devil. Eve was the devil’s collaborator in bringing sin into the world.You mean who was the “woman” of Gen 3:15…at a time when there was only one woman who existed? I can’t help but note that at verse 12 Adam blames the “woman” and that woman is Eve. At verse 13 God addresses the “woman” and that woman is Eve. At verse 16 God addresses the “woman” and that woman is Eve. So then, when God mentions the “woman” at verse 15, I have to conclude that it is Eve yet again…it seems more than obvious from over here.
How can it be both Israel and the Church? Israel is not the Church or vice-versa. Israel “gave birth to” Christ, but it (obviously) did not give birth to all believers (or even many believers). And, Christ gave birth to the Church, not the other way around. So, I can only think of one person who has consistently been called both the Mother of Christ and the Mother of believers in Christ, and that is Mary.God’s people…both Israel and the Church