Does every dogma need to be found implictly in scripture

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Fatima-Crusader

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Title says it all, does the bible need to atleast mention something implicty like the interccesion of Saints?
 
does the bible need to atleast mention something implicty
No. The bible does not touch on many things. Weight must be given to the word-of-mouth teachings which were passed on and down by the apostles and which would, and do, fill many such books.
 
You Catholics ( or the Catholics, whichever is applicable) call it The Apostolic Tradition. It’s worth looking up. 🙂
 
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Short answer: No.

Where did Jesus teach that we must believe only what is written?

He did not.

He sent the Holy Spirit to remind the Apostles of everything He taught them.

Want to find the clear rule from scripture?
Luke 10:16 “He who hears you hears me, and he who rejects you rejects me, and he who rejects me rejects him who sent me.”
We are blessed to have the complete bible, but it is a product of the Church - not the other way round. It is NOT a foundation. Via inspiration, it documents the foundation.
 
True enough. They have heard for their entire lives that the bible is the solid foundation. The elephant in their living room is the fact that the written word has produced nothing but argumentation and division for the past 500 years. Sadly, they pay scant attention to our Lord’s actions in founding His Church. I call to mind Who unites and who divides.

 
Nearly every dogma has an implicit reference in scripture. I think you meant explicit; no, not necessary.
 
Most of them have been solemnly defined by a council. Perhaps the most obvious example that fits the OP would be the Trinity. It’s in our creeds.
 
Title says it all, does the bible need to atleast mention something implicty like the interccesion of Saints?
The bible was never even intended to be some sort of exhaustive catechism or creed. And the Church had received and proclaimed the gospel before a word of the New Testament was written.
 
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Title says it all, does the bible need to atleast mention something implicty like the interccesion of Saints?
No.

Mind you, there are Catholics who believe that: it is referred to as the material sufficiency of Sacred Scripture. It seems to me (though I may be mistaken) that the idea is most common (though perhaps not really common at all) amongst converts who are defending the faith to non-Catholics. I myself do not believe in material sufficiency, and no Catholic is obliged to do so.
 
You’d be amazed at what a tough sell this is among my Evangelical friends.
The usual way I do it is get them to agree the bible is divinely inspired but then the table of contents is not. Therefore their Bible has a fallible table of contents detailing an infallible Word.
 
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