Does God-breathed Scripture contradict itself?

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Assuming you’re statement is correct, then please give the “infallible” explanation for this contradiction. If the Church has not given any such “infallible” explanation, then I would suggest it either doesn’t care about the truth or doesn’t know the truth. In either case, they disqualify themselves as teachers of the Truth of God’s Word.

Because you apparently accept contradictions in what the Church has “infallibly” declared to be God-breathed Scripture.
There are no contradictions to accept. Any apparent contradictions are just that, apparent. They usually result from ignoring the intent and meaning of the author at the time they were written.
Does inerrancy allow for contradictions in the God-breathed Scriptures?

There are a lot of writings that are “beneficial and inspiring” that are not Scripture. That does not answer the question of contradictions of Scriptuer with itself (as dogmatically defined by the Council of Trent in 1545).

Sounds like you believe there are errors in the Bible.
No I do not. And I’d kindly ask you to not accuse me of that again.
As I said, there is a lot to read. Which part, specifically, is related to the topic?
Again, all of it is directly related to the topic.
 
Is the Church authority to determine canonicity of the deuterocanonicals an underlying question here? Or, for that matter, Church authority to determine any of the Scriptures?
 
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AmbroseSJ:
The same God that breathed Scriptures also taught verbally to the people in parables that they did not understand, and which they were not meant to understand (not on their own that is.)
Once again, if the Church infallibly teaches that Judith is a parable, what is the parable? And of all the parables in Scripture (that is, Scriptures we agree are Scripture), how many give historical names or specific historical information (like “It was the twelfth year of the reign of Nebuchadnezzar, king of the Assyrians in the great city of Nineveh”)?
God’s Scriptures were NEVER intended as a way for his children to AVOID or CIRCUMVENT authority. Yet that is the fundamental principle of Scripture alone or sola scriptura. It is a hydra that also brought us private judgment. None of these things were innovated by the Protestants. No. They existed all the way back to the time of St. John the evangelist with Cerinthus and his followers, St. Peter and Simon Magus, Jesus and the Scribes and Pharisees, just the names change down through the ages.
Of course, Sola Scriptura is not the topic. I am asking for an explanation of the contradictions found between Judith and other Scriptures (I would like an official explanation as given by the Church since they are the “authority” that declared Judith to be Scripture).
 
Prayer Warrior:
The Church states that “all that the inspired authors or sacred writers affirm should be regarded as affirmed by the Holy Spirit, we must acknowledge that the books of Scripture firmly, faithfully, and without error teach that truth which God, for the sake of our salvation, wished to see confided to the Sacred Scriptures.”
OK, so what is the explanation for the contradiction found in Judith with other Scriptures?
I was simply giving you information on how the Church views Scripture.
That’s fine, but it still doesn’t explain the contradictions.
Why would you be interested in my interpretation of the passage?I thought you wanted to know what the Church had to say about it? The answer is that the Church does not address individual scriptures with exception to the ones I mentioned before.
I am trying to find out what explanation the Church offers for the contradictions found in what they have dogmatically declared is Scripture. If the Church doesn’t offer an explanation, then how can it be trusted in anything it says?
Is the Church authority to determine canonicity of the deuterocanonicals an underlying question here? Or, for that matter, Church authority to determine any of the Scriptures?
I do not believe that Scripture contradicts itself. I have argued the historical errors found in Judith on another thread, but all I get is “It’s like a parable, not historical”. I rephrased the question in an effort to (hopefully) show that Judith is not God-breathed Scripture, or to get an explanation from the Church for these discrepancies. If Judith is not Scripture, then the “infallible” Church made an error by declaring it to be so, thereby proving it is not infallible. If the Catholic Church is truly granted the charism of infallibility in it’s teaching authority, then it should have an explanation for these discrepancies (I would add that, since this occurred in 1545, the explanation should come from that Council as well, but that discussion can wait).

The immediate question is – does the God-breathed Scripture contradict itself? If yes, then why believe anything it says? If not, then please give the explanation offered by the Catholic Church for the discrepancies found with Judith and other Scriptures (and again, I can point to more than just the 1 example I gave at the beginning).
 
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davidv:
There are no contradictions to accept. Any apparent contradictions are just that, apparent. They usually result from ignoring the intent and meaning of the author at the time they were written.
I keep hearing this, but have yet to be given any explanation from the Catholic Church as to how these are “apparent errors”.
No I do not. And I’d kindly ask you to not accuse me of that again.
I won’t bring it up again.
Again, all of it is directly related to the topic.
I’ll read this and see how it relates to the topic.
 
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Cachonga:
Of course, Sola Scriptura is not the topic. I am asking for an explanation of the contradictions found between Judith and other Scriptures (I would like an official explanation as given by the Church since they are the “authority” that declared Judith to be Scripture).
There are explanations, even though you won’t find “official” ones. You are looking for something that doesn’t exist, and that has already been pointed out to you by others.

The Church has many documents stating her position on the Scriptures. Why don’t you consult them if you are truly seeking after the truth.
 
OK, so what is the explanation for the contradiction found in Judith with other Scriptures?

That’s fine, but it still doesn’t explain the contradictions.

I am trying to find out what explanation the Church offers for the contradictions found in what they have dogmatically declared is Scripture. If the Church doesn’t offer an explanation, then how can it be trusted in anything it says?

I do not believe that Scripture contradicts itself. I have argued the historical errors found in Judith on another thread, but all I get is “It’s like a parable, not historical”. I rephrased the question in an effort to (hopefully) show that Judith is not God-breathed Scripture, or to get an explanation from the Church for these discrepancies. If Judith is not Scripture, then the “infallible” Church made an error by declaring it to be so, thereby proving it is not infallible. If the Catholic Church is truly granted the charism of infallibility in it’s teaching authority, then it should have an explanation for these discrepancies (I would add that, since this occurred in 1545, the explanation should come from that Council as well, but that discussion can wait).

The immediate question is – does the God-breathed Scripture contradict itself? If yes, then why believe anything it says? If not, then please give the explanation offered by the Catholic Church for the discrepancies found with Judith and other Scriptures (and again, I can point to more than just the 1 example I gave at the beginning).
The Church teaches that Scripture teaches “without error”. What else do you want us to say on that? The next part of your question has also been answered. You ask “If not, then please give the explanation offered by the Catholic Church for the discrepancies found with Judith and other Scriptures?” Here is the answer: The Church has not offered an explanation regarding these so-called contradictions. Nor has the Church offered an explanation of the 194 alleged contradictions of the New Testament.

It seems as if you think this lack of explanation is somehow a deal breaker when it comes to trusting the Church. If it is a deal breaker for you, I respect that. The lack of explanation does not have the same impact on me. I think posting the question “Why do you trust the Church” on a separate thread would be worthwhile.
 
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AmbroseSJ:
There are explanations, even though you won’t find “official” ones. You are looking for something that doesn’t exist, and that has already been pointed out to you by others.
Are there any “preferred” explanations? For example, I keep hearing that Judith was not meant to be taken historically (even though it mentions specific historical figures, places and times, and many of these also contradict what we both agree are Scriptures), but is more “like” a parable (even though no other parable I know of in Scripture ever uses historical figures, places and times), but I haven’t heard any explanation of the parable (I will admit, this could be my fault, so I would welcome any such explanation).
The Church has many documents stating her position on the Scriptures. Why don’t you consult them if you are truly seeking after the truth.
I have actually done as davidv suggested, and read Dei Verbum, but I am left with more questions than answers. For example, in Chapter 3 (Sacred Scripture, its Inspiration and Divine Interpretation), it says, “In composing the sacred books, God chose men and while employed by Him (2) they made use of their powers and abilities, so that with Him acting in them and through them, (3) they, as true authors, consigned to writing everything and only those things which He wanted. (4)” I agree with this, but I do not understand why God would contradict His own written word (much less history). It goes on to say “Therefore, since everything asserted by the inspired authors or sacred writers must be held to be asserted by the Holy Spirit, it follows that the books of Scripture must be acknowledged as teaching solidly, faithfully and without error that truth which God wanted put into sacred writings (5) for the sake of salvation.” Again, I agree with this, but what has the Catholic Church actually taught about the book of Judith (other than “it’s Scripture”)? Let’s forget about an “official” explanation (since there is none), what has the Catholic Church ever taught about Judith? If this is necessary for our salvation, I would hope that a Church that truly follows after God’s truth would tell people about it (unless they know it’s not true, or just aren’t concerned about salvation, and I don’t believe the Catholic Church would admit to either possibility).

Here’s a really confusing part (from Dei Verbum emphasis mine) - “12. However, since God speaks in Sacred Scripture through men in human fashion, (6) the interpreter of Sacred Scripture, in order to see clearly what God wanted to communicate to us, should carefully investigate what meaning the sacred writers really intended, and what God wanted to manifest by means of their words.” If you go back a bit, you’ll find this - “But the task of authentically interpreting the word of God, whether written or handed on, (8) has been entrusted exclusively to the living teaching office of the Church, (9) whose authority is exercised in the name of Jesus Christ.” That sounds to me like ONLY the Church can rightly interpret the Scripture, and yet, this same Church has not given an explanation for the contradictions found in Judith. (As far as I know, and I would welcome any correction on this, the only Scriptures the Church has “infallibly” defined and interpreted are the ones it uses to promote it’s own authority.) I think what I find most disturbing is that so many Roman Catholics don’t find this a bit odd. I could go on, but I think I should stop here.
 
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Prayer_Warrior:
The Church teaches that Scripture teaches “without error”. What else do you want us to say on that? The next part of your question has also been answered. You ask “If not, then please give the explanation offered by the Catholic Church for the discrepancies found with Judith and other Scriptures?” Here is the answer: The Church has not offered an explanation regarding these so-called contradictions. Nor has the Church offered an explanation of the 194 alleged contradictions of the New Testament.
So how are Catholics supposed to give a clear, consistent and reliable answer when confronted with this question? It sounds to me like the Catholic Church is leaving it up to the individual to interpret this for themselves, and hopefully give an answer that doesn’t conflict with Church teachings.
It seems as if you think this lack of explanation is somehow a deal breaker when it comes to trusting the Church. If it is a deal breaker for you, I respect that. The lack of explanation does not have the same impact on me. I think posting the question “Why do you trust the Church” on a separate thread would be worthwhile.
As I mentioned in my last post (while going over some things I found in Dei Verbum), the Catholic Church has declared that it alone has the authority to interpret Scripture, yet it tells you that to properly interpret Scripture, you must do certain things (see the previous post for details). How can you properly interpret Scripture when only the Magisterium of the Catholic Church has that authority? Sorry, but this doesn’t make sense to me (and is one of the ways God used to deliver me out of the Roman Catholic Church over 20 years ago).
 
You’re making a pretty big issue out of what you think is an historical inaccuracy in the book of Judith. What exactly is your goal? It was already stated that there are many explanations for the perceived inaccuracy. Are you not convinced? Does no explanation seem plausible? What?
 
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AmbroseSJ:
You’re making a pretty big issue out of what you think is an historical inaccuracy in the book of Judith. What exactly is your goal? It was already stated that there are many explanations for the perceived inaccuracy. Are you not convinced? Does no explanation seem plausible? What?
This is a big deal. Consider the following -


  1. *]The Catholic Church (at the Council of Trent) dogmatically declared Judith to be inspired Scripture.
    *]The book of Judith contains numerous statements that clearly contradict both Scripture and history (though the topic is addressing the contradictions from a Scriptural perspective, not an historical one).
    *]The same Church that declared Judith to be Scripture also teaches that there is no contradiction in Scripture, even though Judith does just that.
    *]When asked for an explanation of these contradictions within the pages of Scripture, the Church is silent.

    In light of this, it seems clear that either the Church made an error when it declared Judith to be Scripture (thereby proving it is NOT infallible), or that the Church would rather leave the explanations up to the people (the same people that it denies the authority to rightly interpret Scripture), which brings up the very basic question - Why? If this is only an apparent error, why hasn’t the Church offered (or at least sanctioned) an explanation? If it is a real error, then the Church erred by declaring it to be Scripture. If the Church made a mistake in a supposedly infallible declaration, then how can it be believed when it makes any “infallible” declaration? This is a very important question!
 
So how are Catholics supposed to give a clear, consistent and reliable answer when confronted with this question? It sounds to me like the Catholic Church is leaving it up to the individual to interpret this for themselves, and hopefully give an answer that doesn’t conflict with Church teachings.

As I mentioned in my last post (while going over some things I found in Dei Verbum), the Catholic Church has declared that it alone has the authority to interpret Scripture, yet it tells you that to properly interpret Scripture, you must do certain things (see the previous post for details). How can you properly interpret Scripture when only the Magisterium of the Catholic Church has that authority? Sorry, but this doesn’t make sense to me (and is one of the ways God used to deliver me out of the Roman Catholic Church over 20 years ago).
From the Catholic perspective, the Church has delivered to us the whole Truth of the teaching of Christ and His Apostles. We read Scripture within the light of the Church. Sort of like reading the Old Testament in the light of the New… the OT just takes on a different meaning when you read it in the Light of Christ. Certain passages are tough to interpret, but we have the guideline of the Church to go by. You simply do not believe the guideline is correct. I do. However, it is tough to argue that self-interpretation hasn’t destroyed the protestant church that Martin Luther envisioned. It has been broken into thousands of disagreeing pieces. Yet, as John 21:11 foretells, the net of Peter remains untorn (greek word used in this passage is the root of the word “schism”)

I find it fascinating that a non-Catholic insists that Scripture is without error because God made it so. They claim, rightly, that God inspired the writers to write down what He wanted them to write. Yet, they turn around and insist that it is not possible that God is guiding the Church in the same way. Really? God can’t be guiding the Church?

Regarding the “contradictions” in Judith, here is some help from Catholic Answers:
It is important to bear in mind, that this is a free narrative of a historical event, written with a teaching, moralizing purpose in mind. This explains, for example, why Nebuchadnezzar (604-562 B.C.), is described as king of Nineveh, whereas Nineveh is known to have been destroyed in 612. According to the narrative itself we are in the post-exilic period, after the rebuilding of the Temple (4:3-13; 5:18). There are no signs of idolatry (8:18), and the Law is being rigorously observed (12:2-9). All this suggests that the sacred writer, for some reason of symbolism, wanted to give fictitious names to people and places. His contemporaries would have had no difficulty in working out what the characters’ real names were, whereas we have the greatest difficulty.
I’m curious, how do you deal with the many apparent contradictions of the New Testament? Here is a link. Many of them are just ridiculous, in my view, but some are more difficult to explain. You are convinced, are you not, of the canonicity of the NT?
 
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Prayer_Warrior:
From the Catholic perspective, the Church has delivered to us the whole Truth of the teaching of Christ and His Apostles. We read Scripture within the light of the Church. Sort of like reading the Old Testament in the light of the New… the OT just takes on a different meaning when you read it in the Light of Christ. Certain passages are tough to interpret, but we have the guideline of the Church to go by. You simply do not believe the guideline is correct. I do. However, it is tough to argue that self-interpretation hasn’t destroyed the protestant church that Martin Luther envisioned. It has been broken into thousands of disagreeing pieces. Yet, as John 21:11 foretells, the net of Peter remains untorn (greek word used in this passage is the root of the word “schism”)
Of course, this is not a discussion on the many different denominations (most of which do not PRACTICE Sola Scriptura, but that should be saved for another thread). I could also argue that the Church that Jesus founded is made up of His people, but that would be off topic as well.
I find it fascinating that a non-Catholic insists that Scripture is without error because God made it so. They claim, rightly, that God inspired the writers to write down what He wanted them to write. Yet, they turn around and insist that it is not possible that God is guiding the Church in the same way. Really? God can’t be guiding the Church?
Again, this is not the topic (though I would argue that God is most certainly guiding His people, regardless of what church they attend).
Regarding the “contradictions” in Judith, here is some help from Catholic Answers:
It is important to bear in mind, that this is a free narrative of a historical event, written with a teaching, moralizing purpose in mind. This explains, for example, why Nebuchadnezzar (604-562 B.C.), is described as king of Nineveh, whereas Nineveh is known to have been destroyed in 612. According to the narrative itself we are in the post-exilic period, after the rebuilding of the Temple (4:3-13; 5:18). There are no signs of idolatry (8:18), and the Law is being rigorously observed (12:2-9). All this suggests that the sacred writer, for some reason of symbolism, wanted to give fictitious names to people and places. His contemporaries would have had no difficulty in working out what the characters’ real names were, whereas we have the greatest difficulty.

I’m sure this would be a reasonable answer IF the Scriptures were from men and not from God. I would argue that the story Jesus told of Lazarus and the rich man was a true story, and the people who heard it knew who the rich man was. If Judith was truly Scripture, why didn’t God use the same device? Instead, the writing is not only difficult for us to fully understand, but it contradicts other Scriptures that are accepted as such by Catholics, Protestants AND Jews! This makes no sense to me at all. I cannot believe that God would contradict His own written word in any way.
I’m curious, how do you deal with the many apparent contradictions of the New Testament? Here is a link. Many of them are just ridiculous, in my view, but some are more difficult to explain. You are convinced, are you not, of the canonicity of the NT?
I just glanced at a few of them, and I find explanations for everything I’ve seen (again, I just glanced through it, I have not gone through every single “contradiction”). I have mentioned before about the genealogy of Jesus in Matthew and Luke, and pointed out that Jesus had 2 parents (Joseph and Mary), and that I found a 3rd or 4th century commentary that mentioned the genealogy found in Matthew was that of Mary. Obviously the genealogy of two different people should be different. The angel told Mary about Jesus before she became pregnant, and told Joseph after she became pregnant. There is no contradiction there. The different fathers of Joseph, again, points to the 2 different genealogies. Since God made the two (husband and wife) into one, it was normal for the husband to be named, even when giving the wife’s genealogy.

I have no doubts about the canonicity of the NT, and I have not found any contradictions that remain once they have been examined. If there is a specific contradiction you would like me to look at, please let me know.
 
This is a big deal. Consider the following -

    • The Catholic Church (at the Council of Trent) dogmatically declared Judith to be inspired Scripture.
    • The book of Judith contains numerous statements that clearly contradict both Scripture and history (though the topic is addressing the contradictions from a Scriptural perspective, not an historical one).
    • The same Church that declared Judith to be Scripture also teaches that there is no contradiction in Scripture, even though Judith does just that.
    • When asked for an explanation of these contradictions within the pages of Scripture, the Church is silent.

  1. Cachonga,

    Here’s the view from my angle regarding your first point above. Please consider this.

    In 382, under the authority of Pope Damasus, the Council of Rome promulgates to the world the canon of Holy Scripture

    The above promulgated canon includes the Old Testament in Septuagint form and the New Testament

    Thus, in 382, the book of Judith is considered canonical by Christianity – the Catholic Church

    More to the point, Judith is considered canonical more than 1,000 years before Luther removes it

    Various councils throughout history continue to ratify this canon: Hippo, Carthage, Nicaea, Florence

    In the early 1500s, Luther changes the Old Testament canon and the Protestant Reformers accept it

    Thus, the book of Judith – after more than 1,000 years – all of a sudden – is no longer considered canonical because of Luther and the Protestors, even though Judith had been considered canonical by Christendom since 382

    1. In 1546 – in response to the Protestors having changed the Old Testament canon – the Catholic Church at the Council of Trent dogmatically reaffirms the canon of Holy Scripture – this canon includes Judith just like the canon promulgated more than 1,000 years before it in the year 382
 
I would argue that the story Jesus told of Lazarus and the rich man was a true story, and the people who heard it knew who the rich man was.
Do you realize how mean that interpretation makes Our Lord look? Makes Him guilty of gossip.

When He tells a parable, He’s not telling tales about some other guy we know (while we breathe a sigh of relief when we recognize it’s about the other guy). No, the whole point of a parable like the one of the rich man and Lazarus is that it could be about us.
 
This is a big deal. Consider the following -


  1. *]The Catholic Church (at the Council of Trent) dogmatically declared Judith to be inspired Scripture.
    *]The book of Judith contains numerous statements that clearly contradict both Scripture and history (though the topic is addressing the contradictions from a Scriptural perspective, not an historical one).
    *]The same Church that declared Judith to be Scripture also teaches that there is no contradiction in Scripture, even though Judith does just that.
    *]When asked for an explanation of these contradictions within the pages of Scripture, the Church is silent.

    In light of this, it seems clear that either the Church made an error when it declared Judith to be Scripture (thereby proving it is NOT infallible), or that the Church would rather leave the explanations up to the people (the same people that it denies the authority to rightly interpret Scripture), which brings up the very basic question - Why? If this is only an apparent error, why hasn’t the Church offered (or at least sanctioned) an explanation? If it is a real error, then the Church erred by declaring it to be Scripture. If the Church made a mistake in a supposedly infallible declaration, then how can it be believed when it makes any “infallible” declaration? This is a very important question!

  1. OK. This seems to be the heart of the matter. I agree with all of your four points EXCEPT that Judith “clearly contains contradictions.” Catholics believe there aren’t any contradictions, and explanations of this verse have been given. So why do Catholics believe that there isn’t a contradiction? Because verses like this one are addressed as a whole and in general in Dei Verbum. The Church has not specifically addressed this verse likely because it feels it already has it covered by Dei Verbum. No need for redundancy. “Keep in mind the context in which the author is writing.” Done. When we do this, we come up with some of the explanations given in this thread, and we can accept one of them, or at least accept that there is no contradiction. If in the future the Church perceives widespread confusion among the faithful regarding this verse, then it may exercise its infallibility and specifically interpret this verse. But the chances of that are very slim.

    You also indicated that you didn’t understand why Dei Verbum said that the Church and only the Church is explicitly given the ability to infallibly define scripture, while in another part of Dei Verbum it says that a person should keep certain things in mind in order to interpret scripture correctly. The difference here is that the Church is the only one that can KNOW she is right when she interprets a verse, since her knowledge comes directly from God. As for us, we may be right, but there is no way we are going to completely utterly KNOW we are right with divine affirmation. Keeping this in mind, Dei Verbum is simply telling us that when interpreting Scripture, it is more likely that we will arrive at the truth when we consider the context in which the author was writing.

    The point–the Church has addressed the verse in Judith, just not specifically. Dei Verbum basically covers it, and the Church sees no dire need to specifically interpret this verse.

    May God give us patience and charity,
    Koopa
 
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RedClay:
Here’s the view from my angle regarding your first point above. Please consider this.
And yet many people in the Church, including some Bishops, Cardinasl and Popes, believed as Jerome did (even up to the Reformation), that the deuterocanonicals were ok for edification, but not to be used as autortative in establishing doctrine. In any case, the canon was not “infallibly” closed until the Council of Trent. However, this topic is concerned with Scripture contradicting itself, and is focusing on the book of Judith as compared to other Scriptures, so I’m not going to bother getting into the history of the canon in this thread.
 
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quettandil:
Do you realize how mean that interpretation makes Our Lord look? Makes Him guilty of gossip.
I guess you think Jesus was “mean” when he openly and publicly called people hypocrites, snakes, and even children of Satan to their face. Also, Jesus wasn’t talking about the rich man, but was relating a true story of the afterlife, so it’s not gossip.
When He tells a parable, He’s not telling tales about some other guy we know (while we breathe a sigh of relief when we recognize it’s about the other guy). No, the whole point of a parable like the one of the rich man and Lazarus is that it could be about us.
I agree. So why would Judith, which gives specific, historical names, places and times, be considered a parable?
 
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Koopa:
OK. This seems to be the heart of the matter. I agree with all of your four points EXCEPT that Judith “clearly contains contradictions.” Catholics believe there aren’t any contradictions, and explanations of this verse have been given. So why do Catholics believe that there isn’t a contradiction? Because verses like this one are addressed as a whole and in general in Dei Verbum. The Church has not specifically addressed this verse likely because it feels it already has it covered by Dei Verbum. No need for redundancy. “Keep in mind the context in which the author is writing.” Done. When we do this, we come up with some of the explanations given in this thread, and we can accept one of them, or at least accept that there is no contradiction. If in the future the Church perceives widespread confusion among the faithful regarding this verse, then it may exercise its infallibility and specifically interpret this verse. But the chances of that are very slim.
I would say it comes down to this - is the author of Scripture man or God? If it’s God-breathed Scripture, God is the author. God doesn’t just speak to a single generation, but to all generations. Why, then, would He contradict His own word? Dei Verbum doesn’t explain this. What it does do is convince me even more that I was correct in leaving the Catholic Church.
You also indicated that you didn’t understand why Dei Verbum said that the Church and only the Church is explicitly given the ability to infallibly define scripture, while in another part of Dei Verbum it says that a person should keep certain things in mind in order to interpret scripture correctly. The difference here is that the Church is the only one that can KNOW she is right when she interprets a verse, since her knowledge comes directly from God. As for us, we may be right, but there is no way we are going to completely utterly KNOW we are right with divine affirmation. Keeping this in mind, Dei Verbum is simply telling us that when interpreting Scripture, it is more likely that we will arrive at the truth when we consider the context in which the author was writing.
Not exactly. My “confusion” was how the Church can claim to exclusively have “the task of authentically interpreting the word of God” while at the same time telling its people how they should interpret the Scriptures. If the Church has the exclusive ability to authentically interpret the word of God (both Scripture and Tradition), then why are there so few verses of Scripture “infallibly” interpreted? Doesn’t the Church care about the people? About passing on God’s truth? Why, after nearly 2,000 years, are most (if not all) of the Scriptures that have been “infallibly” interpreted the same ones the Church uses to support it’s own claims for authority? But this is straying off topic, so treat these as rhetorical questions.
The point–the Church has addressed the verse in Judith, just not specifically. Dei Verbum basically covers it, and the Church sees no dire need to specifically interpret this verse.
Dei Verbum does a very nice dance around the problem, but does not address it at all. I would suggest that if anyone asks if you believe in the Bible, to be completely honest, you should answer, “I believe without question what the Roman Catholic Church tells me to believe about the Bible!” To just say “Yes.” would be a misrepresentation.
 
Why is it Judith specifically that bothers you? Why not the historical conflicts between Kings and Chronicles? Or anachronisms in Genesis? Or inaccurate namings of kings in Daniel?

The position you’re working from is incorrect. We do not have painfully accurate manuscripts of the Old Testament books identical in content to the original autographs. The Pentateuch contains several sources stitched together. Isaiah is a collection of three books by three authors. Jeremiah is significantly longer in the Hebrew than in the Septuagint, probably because the Hebrew text was lengthened later. A Dead Sea Scroll indicates that Leviticus started its life as a priestly handbook and was edited with narrative sections later.

Judith is a work of fiction akin to Esther. It includes not only the name Nebuchadnezzar, but the names of several other historical figures who were not contemporaries. It amalgamates several of Israel’s historical enemies from throughout time and depicts them gathering together from throughout the world to attack Israel in the days of the Second Temple, in an exaggerated, fantasized landscape. The story involves the siege of a fictional town delivered by an ideal woman whose name means “Jewess.” The Catholic Answers explanation is probably partly right–it is more difficult for modern readers to interpret than for ancient readers, because ancient readers could no doubt figure out it’s a fictional work, whereas we for some reason go hunting for an historical event to append it to.

To say Judith contradicts 2 Kings is like saying Bullfinch’s Legends of Charlemagne contradicts the history of Medieval France, or like saying a novel contradicts a science textbook. You’re trying to make a comparison between two unlike things.

Even if you decide to reject the Deuterocanonicals as sacred scripture, you are still, in the end, dependent on the Church for having handed you the Bible you have. It was the Church that declared not just the Deuterocanonicals, but all the rest of the books therein, to be scripture. If the Church could not get it right when defining the Deuterocanonicals, there’s no reason to think she got any of the others right either, and you have no basis for saying with any certainty that there are any canonical books at all.
 
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