A
Ana_v
Guest
If “free will” and “necessarily being good” are mutually exclusive? May we entertain the idea that they’re not? Would it be heretical to do so?
During the Fall of last year, I submitted a question to William Lane Craig’s Q&A feature on his Reasonable Faith website. Dr. Craig is a Christian (Protestant) philosopher, and he’s perhaps the face of Christian apologetics, at least as far as the atheist perception is concerned (William Craig has an exhaustive record of formally debating atheists, including the world’s leading outspoken ones, such as Christopher Hitchens).
Back to the point … Dr. Craig selects one question per week, but mine was not selected (understandably – he receives many submissions).
Below is what I had written to him. Perhaps someone here would like to take a stab at it. I have yet to resolve my question.
During the Fall of last year, I submitted a question to William Lane Craig’s Q&A feature on his Reasonable Faith website. Dr. Craig is a Christian (Protestant) philosopher, and he’s perhaps the face of Christian apologetics, at least as far as the atheist perception is concerned (William Craig has an exhaustive record of formally debating atheists, including the world’s leading outspoken ones, such as Christopher Hitchens).
Back to the point … Dr. Craig selects one question per week, but mine was not selected (understandably – he receives many submissions).
Below is what I had written to him. Perhaps someone here would like to take a stab at it. I have yet to resolve my question.
" In my experience of Christian apologetics, I see the free will theodicy as the most popular and frequently cited argument in addressing the problem of evil and suffering in light of the existence of a benevolent God. While thinking about free will incessantly over the past few days, I found myself questioning a particular claim that is made within a standard presentation of the argument. The claim (paraphrased) is that, had God created mankind – Adam and Eve – without the capacity to choose that which is not good (i.e. to choose to disobey Him)… or, in other words, had God created Adam and Eve to where they could and would ONLY do that which is good… that it means Adam and Eve would not have had free will.
But, if that conclusion is correct, would we – in order to be consistent – not also have to argue that God Himself does not have free will? As Christians, we maintain that God is holy, He is just, He is perfection, He has no evil to him, and cannot commit evil, as He has a nature to which He is bound to. And His nature is such that He can only do that which is good. Are we to suggest that because God is bound to this nature, and can only act in accordance to it, that therefore He does not have free will? If we are to argue that God does have free will, then in what sense can it be argued that if God had created man with a nature that could exercise only the good, man would lack free will? "