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michael_legna
Guest
If you are claiming (for the sake of argument) that you could have infallible foreknowledge then I agree, but then your foreknowledge would also be a limitation on free will as the individuals could not choose other than you know them to be choosing, and thus they have no real choice but to follow the world time line you already accept infallibly.You are still confusing the definitions of knowledge and causation. God’s foreknowledge and my foreknowledge are not different in terms of causation. If I possess absolute foreknowledge than your logic about God’s foreknowledge and free will must also apply to me because our certain foreknowledge is the same.
No, but infallible knowledge and causation are the same.The solution to the difficulty is understanding that knowledge and causation are not the same thing. If you blend or confuse them in any way, you will distort the reality of one or both.