Does God know my future? Do I really have free will?

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Pax:
You are still confusing the definitions of knowledge and causation. God’s foreknowledge and my foreknowledge are not different in terms of causation. If I possess absolute foreknowledge than your logic about God’s foreknowledge and free will must also apply to me because our certain foreknowledge is the same.
If you are claiming (for the sake of argument) that you could have infallible foreknowledge then I agree, but then your foreknowledge would also be a limitation on free will as the individuals could not choose other than you know them to be choosing, and thus they have no real choice but to follow the world time line you already accept infallibly.
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Pax:
The solution to the difficulty is understanding that knowledge and causation are not the same thing. If you blend or confuse them in any way, you will distort the reality of one or both.
No, but infallible knowledge and causation are the same.
 



Which is precisely why God must have established a covenant with us as part of the gift of free will where He chooses not to know everything we might choose, in exactly the same way He has chosen not to destroy the world by flood ever again in the covenant with Noah. He is able to do one, He is certainly able to do the other.
We have no scriptural, doctrinal, or even logical reason to assume that God must have established a covenant with us as you describe it. God could do this just as he chose to promise not to destroy the world again by way of a flood. God could also have saved the world in a fashion other than sending His divine son Jesus to suffer and die on the cross. We are given evidence in scripture to support and identify all of God’s covenants with man. We have no scriptural evidence or Christian tradition to support the existence of a covenant limiting God’s knowledge.

I find it rather easy to accept the fact that God wills man to have “free will.” I see no logical reason why God’s decision in this matter precipitates a limitation on his knowledge.

Imagine for a moment that God decided to play a game in creation. He could set His game up any way he liked. He could decide that his game would be worked out in order by random events once the game was initiated, and that He would not know the outcome until he decided to take a look at the end results. This is a little like your idea of covenant but without necessarily including man or man’s free will. God then takes a peek at the game from His eternal position outside of time. He instantly sees everything and all of the outcomes.

In this scenario God is the primary cause, but He deliberately instituted randomness into the game of creation. Once God instantly saw the outcomes the random element would still remain. Likewise, if God foresaw all of the random elements playout in His omniscience prior to the commencement of the creative motions, allowing the random events to go forward thereafter would not remove the random dimension of the actions.

This holds true for the freedom exercised by men as well. God is the primary cause of creation. God can introduce randomness into creation. God can create man with free will as part of the game plan. God can foresee the outcomes in His eternity, and He can choose to let them play out on their own or He can choose to intervene as He pleases. Why attempt to limit God by how we limit ourselves? Knowing simply isn’t the same as causing. A failure to recognize the distinctions creates a quandry.
 
If you are claiming (for the sake of argument) that you could have infallible foreknowledge then I agree, but then your foreknowledge would also be a limitation on free will as the individuals could not choose other than you know them to be choosing, and thus they have no real choice but to follow the world time line you already accept infallibly.

No, but infallible knowledge and causation are the same.
No offense, but you are definition-ally challenged. Knowledge is simply not causation. I can know many things but unless I can and do apply my will and power upon them, then I am not causing them to happen.
 
No offense, but you are definition-ally challenged. Knowledge is simply not causation. I can know many things but unless I can apply my will and power upon them, then I am not causing them to happen.
If you know something and you cannot possibly be wrong about the event you influence that event such that it can only be the way you know it to be. Otherwise you are not infallible. It is the absoluteness of the definition of infallibility that is the issue here so I do not agree with your assessment of me being challenged.

If you can tell me how this event can be different than you know it to be and yet not lose your infallibility I will admit I do not understand the definitions associated with this issue.
 
You need to logically prove that infallible knowledge is causation. So far this has not been done.
 
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Pax:
We have no scriptural, doctrinal, or even logical reason to assume that God must have established a covenant with us as you describe it.
First you do not know all of scripture so you cannot make such a broad claim. That is known as arguing from the basis of an unknowable fact.

Second I started this discussion asking if anyone knew a doctrinal or dogmatic reason why this idea could not be valid, and no one has offered one.

Thirdly, there is a very definite logical reason why we could suggest this solution - the paradox of free will and omniscience. A paradox the vast majority of philosophers and theologians recognize and even many of the contributors to this thread see but treat as a mystery.
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Pax:
We are given evidence in scripture to support and identify all of God’s covenants with man.
Another unknowable fact. The best you can say is that all the covenants we are aware of are given evidence in scripture. It may be that this is a covenant God has not revealed directly to us. Certainly there are many things God has not revealed to us.
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Pax:
I find it rather easy to accept the fact that God wills man to have “free will.” I see no logical reason why God’s decision in this matter precipitates a limitation on his knowledge.
Then you are in a small minority which does not see the paradox between free will and omniscience.
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Pax:
Imagine for a moment that God decided to play a game in creation. He could set His game up any way he liked. He could decide that his game would be worked out in order by random events once the game was initiated, and that He would not know the outcome until he decided to take a look at the end results. This is a little like your idea of covenant but without necessarily including man or man’s free will. God then takes a peek at the game from His eternal position outside of time. He instantly sees everything and all of the outcomes.
And at that instance all that He saw MUST occur precisely as He saw it and it is no longer truly random events.
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Pax:
In this scenario God is the primary cause, but He deliberately instituted randomness into the game of creation. Once God instantly saw the outcomes the random element would still remain.
No, because if He re-ran the game the same exact results would come up.
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Pax:
Likewise, if God foresaw all of the random elements playout in His omniscience prior to the commencement of the creative motions, allowing the random events to go forward thereafter would not remove the random dimension of the actions.
Yes it would because they would be predetermined and a random event to be truly random cannot be predetermined.
 
Causation denotes action. Knowledge does not denote action. I can be fully aware of something through many different modes and not have any effect on it whatsoever. I can even have future knowledge with a high degree of certitude, and have nothing to do with it. The certitude that I have may be of a highly predictive type but it is virtually infallible in many cases. In these same cases I am not exercising my free will or energy on the event, yet the event happens exactly as I said it would.

An example of this would be a traffic light. I can reliably tell you that a given traffic light will change from red to green and I can do so with a high degree of accuracy and consistency. So much so that my knowledge of the next event with the traffic light is “virtually” infallible. I have absolutely nothing to do with the power and actions driving the traffic light, yet my knowledge of the next event is perfect. The causation and the knowledge are separate. God can certainly keep His knowledge and the free acts of man separate from one another.
 
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Pax:
You need to logically prove that infallible knowledge is causation. So far this has not been done.
I understand you may not be convinced but that does not mean my argument is not logical. You are not the judge of what is logical and what is not.

But here try this:

Assume we are faced with an event which only has two choices. Maybe we have to choose between going through one of two doors.

We are fully able to choose either door and are also able to open it and go through it.

God knows which door we will go through.

There are four possibilities:
  1. God knows we choose door 1 and we choose door 1
  2. God knows we choose door 1 and we choose door 2
  3. God knows we choose door 2 and we choose door 1
  4. God knows we choose door 2 and we choose door 2
Options 1 and 4 satisfy the nature of God being omniscient and infallible.

Options 2 and 3 do not satisfy the nature of God being omniscient and infallible.

Therefore we clearly cannot choose such that it results in either option 2 or 3

We can conclude then that the only two choices we have are those which our choice results in one of the options which agrees with God’s knowledge of our choice. Therefore our free will choice must always result in a option that agrees with God’s knowledge of our choice.

It is this limitation in the options and thus on our choices which is caused by His infallible knowledge.

What part of the this chain of reasoning don’t you agree with?
 
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Pax:
Causation denotes action.
No it can also denote lack of action, as in a potential barrier causes an object not to pass through it.
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Pax:
Knowledge does not denote action.
No but absolute infallible knowledge does denote lack of action by limiting our choices which would be consistent with that knowledge.
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Pax:
I can be fully aware of something through many different modes and not have any effect on it whatsoever. I can even have future knowledge with a high degree of certitude, and have nothing to do with it. The certitude that I have may be of a highly predictive type but it is virtually infallible in many cases.
I agree with this as long as you keep the phrase high degree of certitude, and the phrase virtually infallible - but if that certitude becomes absolute, then there is no lee way for the outcome to come out any other way than you know it to be and that places a restriction on the actual events.
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Pax:
An example of this would be a traffic light. I can reliably tell you that a given traffic light will change from red to green and I can do so with a high degree of accuracy and consistency. So much so that my knowledge of the next event with the traffic light is “virtually” infallible. I have absolutely nothing to do with the power and actions driving the traffic light, yet my knowledge of the next event is perfect. The causation and the knowledge are separate.
It should be obvious to even you that this example is imperfect since it deals with non-absolute knowledge and so is not applicable to the debate.
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Pax:
God can certainly keep His knowledge and the free acts of man separate from one another.
Yes, by self limiting His knowledge to less than absolute by choosing not to know, in much the same way he chooses not to destroy the world by flood and yet is still omnipotent.
 
First you do not know all of scripture so you cannot make such a broad claim. That is known as arguing from the basis of an unknowable fact.
Perhaps not, but you are not in a position to know what I am aware of and not aware of in scripture.
Second I started this discussion asking if anyone knew a doctrinal or dogmatic reason why this idea could not be valid, and no one has offered one.
The answer to this is simple…neither scripture or the Church subscribes to it. We are allowed speculations and are encouraged to think about things that the Church has not defined, but that does not extend into territory that goes against the teaching of the Church and the bible. Both the Church and bible state that God knows all things and that nothing is hidden from him. That should be enough.
Thirdly, there is a very definite logical reason why we could suggest this solution - the paradox of free will and omniscience. A paradox the vast majority of philosophers and theologians recognize and even many of the contributors to this thread see but treat as a mystery.
I accept the mystery portion…I simply see no logical reason to be forced into a corner, and my reasoning allows for a logical approach and mystery.
Another unknowable fact. The best you can say is that all the covenants we are aware of are given evidence in scripture. It may be that this is a covenant God has not revealed directly to us. Certainly there are many things God has not revealed to us.
This is by definition incorrect. A covenant is an agreement between two parties. A covenant between man and God refers to God’s revelation of himself in the way of a promise or of favor to men. We are aware of God’s covenants to man through scripture. There would be no agreement between the parties if we were unaware and there would be no covenant. It would seem therefore that your speculation is not well supported by what we know of covenants.
Then you are in a small minority which does not see the paradox between free will and omniscience.
Not at all…I am simply comfortable with the level of understanding that I have been given however small that may be.
And at that instance all that He saw MUST occur precisely as He saw it and it is no longer truly random events…
There is no logical reason to make this assumption unless you are hung up on knowledge equaling the application of will and power upon the object or events.
No, because if He re-ran the game the same exact results would come up.
On the contrary. Run a random computer game/program. The outcome is different every time you run it. That is because it is random. God would simply know the outcome of the newly run game that would be different from the first time.
Yes it would because they would be predetermined and a random event to be truly random cannot be predetermined.
They are not predetermined.
 
No it can also denote lack of action, as in a potential barrier causes an object not to pass through it.
I’m not so sure about that…the barrier did not happen all by itself.
No but absolute infallible knowledge does denote lack of action by limiting our choices which would be consistent with that knowledge.
You have made this claim a number of times, but have not been able to provide a logical proof. Absolute knowledge does not limit the choices. If you only choose one thing out of a hundred, you still had 99 other possibilities. Those are the choices. Advance knowledge does not eliminate those choices. Instead, it merely illuminates the one that you choose. It in no way determines it.
I agree with this as long as you keep the phrase high degree of certitude, and the phrase virtually infallible - but if that certitude becomes absolute, then there is no lee way for the outcome to come out any other way than you know it to be and that places a restriction on the actual events.
I’m glad we agree here. I have been careful to use this language for a couple of reasons. The first is that we have to use human experience for explanations and for shedding light. I am not rendering a proof about God. What I have done, if you accept what I am saying, is shown definitively that knowledge and causation are not the same thing. They differ greatly from one another. Once this is understood and fully appreciated, it is much easier to see how God can give us free will and still know what we are about to do.
It should be obvious to even you that this example is imperfect since it deals with non-absolute knowledge and so is not applicable to the debate.
It is applicable to the debate because causation and knowledge are two different things. This is IMHO the crucial portion of the debate.
 
I understand you may not be convinced but that does not mean my argument is not logical. You are not the judge of what is logical and what is not.

But here try this:

Assume we are faced with an event which only has two choices. Maybe we have to choose between going through one of two doors.

We are fully able to choose either door and are also able to open it and go through it.

God knows which door we will go through.

There are four possibilities:
  1. God knows we choose door 1 and we choose door 1
  2. God knows we choose door 1 and we choose door 2
  3. God knows we choose door 2 and we choose door 1
  4. God knows we choose door 2 and we choose door 2
Options 1 and 4 satisfy the nature of God being omniscient and infallible.

Options 2 and 3 do not satisfy the nature of God being omniscient and infallible.

Therefore we clearly cannot choose such that it results in either option 2 or 3

We can conclude then that the only two choices we have are those which our choice results in one of the options which agrees with God’s knowledge of our choice. Therefore our free will choice must always result in a option that agrees with God’s knowledge of our choice.

It is this limitation in the options and thus on our choices which is caused by His infallible knowledge.

What part of the this chain of reasoning don’t you agree with?
Please note that the only limitation in the options that you have established concerns whether or not God’s knowledge was correct or incorrect. That is why option 2 and 3 are unacceptable. The choices we have remain the same. We either choose door number one or door number two.

You “chose”[pun intended] the word “choose” in this scenario and you were quite right in doing so. We choose door number one. We choose door number two. God did not do the choosing in those options as expressed. He only knew what we would choose.
 
I understand you may not be convinced but that does not mean my argument is not logical. You are not the judge of what is logical and what is not.


You are quite right…I am only able to discern whether or not something seems to be logical to me unless I expound upon the rules of logic in each and every statement.

I have meant no offense, cheap shot, or insult to your logic. This is not an easy problem to work through, and while I do not agree with you I still commend you for your presentations. They are well thought out.
 
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Pax:
Perhaps not, but you are not in a position to know what I am aware of and not aware of in scripture.
But you made a comment about all of scripture, and I am in a position to know that you do not know all of what scripture teaches on any subject.
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Pax:
The answer to this is simple…neither scripture or the Church subscribes to it.
So you claim, but you have not shown that this is contrary to scripture (and all of what scripture subscribes to is not yet known by even the Church) and this is not contrary to anything the Church teaches (or at least no one has shown me that the Church has directly addressed this idea) and the Church has not declared all it dogmas either, so there are things the Church will subscribe to that it does not yet. Your argument would be the end of theologians if it were valid.
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Pax:
We are allowed speculations and are encouraged to think about things that the Church has not defined, but that does not extend into territory that goes against the teaching of the Church and the bible. Both the Church and bible state that God knows all things and that nothing is hidden from him. That should be enough.
They also say that God is all powerful and all I am suggesting is that this choice not to know everything is no different than God’s choice not to destroy the world by flood. There is nothing here that you have shown is contrary to the Bible or the Church.
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Pax:
I accept the mystery portion…I simply see no logical reason to be forced into a corner, and my reasoning allows for a logical approach and mystery.
I can accept you falling back on the statement of it as a mystery, but I seek to understand this because this is a major stumbling block for those not in the faith. A solution to it would be useful in reaching out to those people.
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Pax:
This is by definition incorrect. A covenant is an agreement between two parties. A covenant between man and God refers to God’s revelation of himself in the way of a promise or of favor to men. We are aware of God’s covenants to man through scripture. There would be no agreement between the parties if we were unaware and there would be no covenant. It would seem therefore that your speculation is not well supported by what we know of covenants.
But there are covenants where only one has anything to fulfill. The covenant with Noah was such a covenant. God initiated that covenant and Noah had to do nothing to participate.
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Pax:
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michael_legna:
And at that instance all that He saw MUST occur precisely as He saw it and it is no longer truly random events…
There is no logical reason to make this assumption unless you are hung up on knowledge equaling the application of will and power upon the object or events.
It is not an assumption. If He is infallible then it must occur as He saw it occur else He is in error. It is the definition of infallibility.
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Pax:
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michael_legna:
No, because if He re-ran the game the same exact results would come up.
On the contrary. Run a random computer game/program. The outcome is different every time you run it. That is because it is random. God would simply know the outcome of the newly run game that would be different from the first time.
First a computer cannot produce truly random numbers, they are all based on an algorithm and they will eventually repeat. Second a computer observing a game (by recording its moves) is not the same as an infallible observer viewing the events.
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Pax:
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michael_legna:
Yes it would because they would be predetermined and a random event to be truly random cannot be predetermined.
They are not predetermined.
Yes, if you have God look at them prior to the game being run and He cannot be wrong, the game must proceed just as He has seen it. That is deterministic. They are predetermined.
 
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Pax:
Please note that the only limitation in the options that you have established concerns whether or not God’s knowledge was correct or incorrect. That is why option 2 and 3 are unacceptable. The choices we have remain the same. We either choose door number one or door number two.
But we choose them based on God’s knowledge - that is the whole point of the correlation between God’s knowledge and our choices. Remember - both of our choices (where God’s knowledge was infallible) matched what God knew, there was an unavoidable direct one to one correspondence between our choice and God’s knowledge. That shows that God’s infallible knowledge causes our choice or our choice causes God’s knowledge, or there is a third force at work here we cannot see. That is the only option in a direct one to one correspondence unless one assumes it is strictly by chance that God’s knowledge matches our choice. I think we can rule our God relying on chance and I think we can rule out the idea that our choice causes God’s knowledge and I am willing to rule out postulating an unknown force. But even without doing so either way free will goes out the window.
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Pax:
You “chose”[pun intended] the word “choose” in this scenario and you were quite right in doing so. We choose door number one. We choose door number two. God did not do the choosing in those options as expressed. He only knew what we would choose.
And the one to one correlation shows that His knowledge affected our choice. It was a choice, I admit that, the question is - was it a free choice?
 
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Pax:
You have made this claim a number of times, but have not been able to provide a logical proof. Absolute knowledge does not limit the choices. If you only choose one thing out of a hundred, you still had 99 other possibilities. Those are the choices. Advance knowledge does not eliminate those choices. Instead, it merely illuminates the one that you choose. It in no way determines it.
Yes the one to one correlation proves it.
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Pax:
I’m glad we agree here. I have been careful to use this language for a couple of reasons. The first is that we have to use human experience for explanations and for shedding light. I am not rendering a proof about God. What I have done, if you accept what I am saying, is shown definitively that knowledge and causation are not the same thing.
But you have not shown that infallible knowledge and causation are not the same thing. You cannot extrapolate from an example to an extreme.
 
But we choose them based on God’s knowledge - that is the whole point of the correlation between God’s knowledge and our choices. Remember - both of our choices (where God’s knowledge was infallible) matched what God knew, there was an unavoidable direct one to one correspondence between our choice and God’s knowledge. That shows that God’s infallible knowledge causes our choice or our choice causes God’s knowledge, or there is a third force at work here we cannot see. That is the only option in a direct one to one correspondence unless one assumes it is strictly by chance that God’s knowledge matches our choice. I think we can rule our God relying on chance and I think we can rule out the idea that our choice causes God’s knowledge and I am willing to rule out postulating an unknown force. But even without doing so either way free will goes out the window.
How can this be? We make our choices based on what we know. If we chose based on what God knows we would never choose wrongly. Each of us is ample proof of erroneous choices.
 
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davidv:
How can this be? We make our choices based on what we know. If we chose based on what God knows we would never choose wrongly. Each of us is ample proof of erroneous choices.
That’s a good point.

I am not saying our choices line up with what God’s infallible choices, I am saying in an argument where we assume God to be omniscient AND not limiting Himself in what He knows about our “choices” then our choice must line up with what He knows.

Obviously the world works differently than that, so yours is another reason we can conclude that God must choose not to know our every decision (without affecting His omniscience) in much the same way that He chooses not to destroy the world by flood (without affecting His omnipotence).
 
If omniscient God knows before the game who the strong will be and who the weak will be, and thus the winners and losers, why did he play the game at all? Why did He create a bunch of weak, selfish people who aren’t going to love Him - people who are going to end up burning in the fires of Gehenna? Wouldn’t it be better for them never to have been born? Wouldn’t a compassionate, omniscient God not have created these people doomed for eternal suffering? Why would He do that?
Because some people will make the right choice. Each should have an opportunity to prove themselves.
 
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