Does "I am" mean "I am YHWH"?

[pohandes]

Nothing in particular.

I’m waitung for your answer.

 

[Vico]

Vico:

Nothing in particular.

I’m waitung for your answer.

That is my answer. Is this a comedy?

 

[pohandes]

That is my answer. Is this a comedy?

I mean answer to first post of this thread.

 

[Vico]

“I AM the Lord, who made all things” Hebrew for Lord here is Yaweh. יְהוָה֙ which means ‘the existing One’

Isaiah 44

24 Thus says the Lord, your Redeemer,
who formed you from the womb:
“I am the Lord, who made all things,
who stretched out the heavens alone,
who spread out the earth—Who was with me?

All things made by Christ:

Colossians 1

15 He is the image of the invisible God, the first-born of all creation; 16 for in him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or authorities—all things were created through him and for him. 17 He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

 

[fide]

A reasoned conclusion about a church, leading to joining that church, is not the same as the gift of saving faith. This is what St. Paul is saying here:
Eph 2:8 For by grace you have been saved through faith; and this is not your own doing, it is the gift of God—
Eph 2:9 not because of works, lest any man should boast.

The same thing is being said in that quote from “Song of Bernadette.” If a conclusion of your mind led you to trust the Catholic Church, that is good - wonderful! - but that is not the end of the road. The journey is not only to Christ, it is into Christ. Saving faith is a gift, not a conclusion - believing Christ is not the same thing as believing something about Him.

If that makes no sense to you, I am not surprised, but I hope you will think about it and pray about it. The Catechism speaks of this difference here:

CCC 50 - By natural reason man can know God with certainty, on the basis of his works. But there is another order of knowledge, which man cannot possibly arrive at by his own powers: the order of divine Revelation. Through an utterly free decision, God has revealed himself and given himself to man. This he does by revealing the mystery, his plan of loving goodness, formed from all eternity in Christ, for the benefit of all men. God has fully revealed this plan by sending us his beloved Son, our Lord Jesus Christ, and the Holy Spirit.

There is a kind of knowledge that man can arrive at by his own natural powers - and there is a kind of knowledge that man cannot gain for himself, by himself or by any natural means at all. Such knowledge is not natural, it is supernatural, a gift from the supernatural God Himself.

 

[Genesis315]

“I am” is God’s own revelation of His essence and existence being identical and only in God is this the case.

 

[adf417]

Yes, sir.

“Yes sir”, you want me to count them for you?
Count - 164
Source - Genesis 1 (KJV) - In the beginning God created

…now what?

Peace!!!

 

[pohandes]

“I AM the Lord, who made all things” Hebrew for Lord here is Yaweh. יְהוָה֙ which means ‘the existing One’

Isaiah 44

24 Thus says the Lord, your Redeemer,
who formed you from the womb:
“I am the Lord, who made all things,
who stretched out the heavens alone,
who spread out the earth—Who was with me?

Nice argument, but it does not prove that when Jesus said “I am”, he meant: “I am YHWH”

“I am” is God’s own revelation of His essence and existence being identical and only in God is this the case.

And what is you reason for it?

“Yes sir”, you want me to count them for you?
Count - 164
Source - Genesis 1 (KJV) - In the beginning God created

…now what?

Peace!!!

peace!!!

 

[whatistrue]

Nice argument, but it does not prove that when Jesus said “I am”, he meant: “I am YHWH”

Well, since “YHWH” is an English transliteration of a Hebrew word that translates as “I AM”, it kind of does mean that. Or such is my understanding at least.

 

[jochoa]

How we can prove that when Lord Jesus said “I am”, he did mean “I am YHWH”?

There are two general means to prove that when Jesus declared “I am,” he did mean “I am YHWH”:

1. By Faith, in that by one of us inspiring another, we accept the validity of the statement.
2. By Faith and Reason, in that by knowing who YHWH and Jesus are, we can recognize Jesus is YHWH.

 

[pohandes]

Well, since “YHWH” is an English transliteration of a Hebrew word that translates as “I AM”, it kind of does mean that. Or such is my understanding at least.

You are right, but it is possible that the “I AM” in Jesus’ word, used in another meaning. So we must have a reason against this possibility.

There are two general means to prove that when Jesus declared “I am,” he did mean “I am YHWH”:

1. By Faith, in that by one of us inspiring another, we accept the validity of the statement.
2. By Faith and Reason, in that by knowing who YHWH and Jesus are, we can recognize Jesus is YHWH.

So, there is no reasonable way?

 

[whatistrue]

but it is possible that the “I AM” in Jesus’ word, used in another meaning

No, it is not. Ask any observant Jew and they will tell you that that word is never used in conversation because of Who it refers to. And such was the case in the first century as well, and back to the time of Noah.

 

[Fauken]

No, it is not. Ask any observant Jew and they will tell you that that word is never used in conversation because of Who it refers to. And such was the case in the first century as well, and back to the time of Noah.

Which is why the Jews were about to stone Him in John:

“8:58 Jesus said to them: Amen, amen, I say to you, before Abraham was made, I AM.
8:59 They took up stones therefore to cast at him. But Jesus hid himself and went out of the temple.”

 

[vsedriver]

You are right, but it is possible that the “I AM” in Jesus’ word, used in another meaning. So we must have a reason against this possibility.

no there is no other meaning. Jesus is clearly stating that he is the same as God. How do we know this? because Jesus taught his Apostles and they in turn taught their successors. The understanding was taught with in the Christian community through Apostolic succession before the gospels were written down.

It is also the basis for the Jews claiming Jesus blasphemed. They couldn’t put him to death for blasphemy so they presented him to the Romans as a ‘rival’ king for Roman authority. The Jews clearly believed that Jesus was claiming he was God. Without that understanding there was no reason for the Jews to have any issue with Jesus.

Jesus knew his claim to Godship would be considered blasphemy. The Jews believed Jesus claimed to be God. The Apostles believed Jesus was God and taught that. At no time did Jesus refute the claim or state he was misunderstood. In fact, when accused, he remained silent. He could easily have put forth a case correcting this.

 

[Vico]

…
Nice argument, but it does not prove that when Jesus said “I am”, he meant: “I am YHWH”

Merriam-Webster, proof (noun):

1a : the cogency of evidence that compels acceptance by the mind of a truth or a fact
b : the process or an instance of establishing the validity of a statement especially by derivation from other statements in accordance with principles of reasoning

 

[jochoa]

So, there is no reasonable way?

I wouldn’t agree that there isn’t a reasonable way, even though Faith is required, because Faith is reasonable.

As an example: Before I had faith in Jesus, I heard stories about his passion and crucifixion. Since the stories seemed reasonable, in that his reactions of patience and kindness to unjust capital punishment are definitely possible, therefore it is reasonable for me to have Faith that a man named Jesus was patient and kind through unjust capital punishment.

 

[adf417]

peace!!!

My apologies!!! I misread the OP. Sorry for taking this down an unintended road.

Peace!!!

 

[pohandes]

No, it is not. Ask any observant Jew and they will tell you that that word is never used in conversation because of Who it refers to. And such was the case in the first century as well, and back to the time of Noah.

Jews may took mistake. Do jews think think that I am claim to be GOD, if I say “I am”?

Which is why the Jews were about to stone Him in John:

“8:58 Jesus said to them: Amen, amen, I say to you, before Abraham was made, I AM.
8:59 They took up stones therefore to cast at him. But Jesus hid himself and went out of the temple.”

Jews was looking for the messiah, but they did not understand that he is Jesus. They may took mistake in other actions too.

Apostles and they in turn taught their successors. The understanding was taught with in the Christian community through Apostolic succession before the gospels were written down.

I’m not sure, Saint John quotes “I AM” but he doesn’t that mean “YHWH”

Merriam-Webster, proof (noun):

1a : the cogency of evidence that compels acceptance by the mind of a truth or a fact
b : the process or an instance of establishing the validity of a statement especially by derivation from other statements in accordance with principles of reasoning

It does not help me. Can you please explain this argument?

 

[Vico]

…
It does not help me. Can you please explain this argument?

What I posted was a definition of proof which shows that a proof was supplied. I think you mean something else, like certainty. I think you will never receive certainty unless the Holy Trinity reveals something to you directly. I suggest prayer for answers.

 

[Fauken]

Jews was looking for the messiah, but they did not understand that he is Jesus. They may took mistake in other actions too.

Where’s the Bible verse that proves that the Jews didn’t “understand” that Jesus was in fact the Messiah? If it was just simple misunderstanding, why then was Jesus silent before the Sanhedrin and others when on every other occasion of misunderstanding He would explain Himself?

There is no other meaning to take from the claim “I AM” as a Jew (much less one in the first century) in this verse. Abraham had a point where he existed and died. Abraham had a beginning and an end. God has no such start and finish: God Is.