If you said the Hebrew word transliterated into English as “YHWH” (which translates into English as “I AM”), then observant Jews would be very upset with you at the very least. That word is ONLY used in Scripture and is forbidden to be spoken. Why is this so hard to understand?
can you reconstruct this sentence so that it makes grammatical sense? I can’t reply if I don’t know what you are asking.
I think so, because it is like suicide! If a Jew knows that Jesus is the Messiah, then ignoring him, is dive into hell! They were not sure, because they did not like to go to hell.
Let’s talk about “before Abraham” in another thread.
Sorry. But he doesn’t wrote that Lord Jesus meant “I am YHWH”
I don’t understand your statement. Let’s stick to an English Translation.
But that’s just your opinion, isn’t it? Jesus called the Pharisees white washed tombs: they’re pretty on the outside, but filled with rotting decay and the dead on the inside. Do you think dead people care?
Your argument has 2 parts:" Jesus is speaking of the Old Testament" and “Stoning is the punishment for blasphemy.”
Yes, but I don’t have any reason that this opinion is wrong.
We talk about my questions, not my belief. My Faith is in my heart and there is no deference between me and you; but I have questions in my mind. I did not convinced “I AM” is a claim to be YHWH, yet.
Context does matter to me, I don’t see this in context. Just jew’s reaction may helo and they may took mistake.
And what exactly is your opinion based on? And where is your verse showing that the Jews rejected Jesus because they didn’t understand Him?
My inference as to what you will and will not accept as proof doesn’t have to do with your faith. It is based on how you have responded to the evidence presented to you thus far.
So what, the perspective of Jews in the first century has no basis on what Jesus is saying? You do realize that Jesus Himself was a Jew in the first century? Do you think He was unaware of what they thought? You cannot ignore the historical and cultural context that Jesus lived in at the time. The fact is that “I AM” has a very specific meaning to Jews and Christians that has carried on for thousands of years to this very day, and there is no mistaking it.
How is talking about Abraham not talking about the Old Testament and hence making a reference to it with “I AM”.?
right! Jesus called himself by God’s name and that is why the Jews wanted to stone him. If Jesus wasn’t calling himself ‘God’ then why did the Jews want to stone him???
From that question, and the rest of the thread, I think you could read up a bit on quotations and intertextuality. That’s a documented phenomenon - interactions between texts and the way voluntary on involuntary quotes colour what one says - and the New Testament is replete with is, its writers being so familiar with the Old Testament that they keep directly or indirectly quoting it.
It is just a possibility .
Questions need answer, even if they do nothing with the faith.
OK. I accept, nut before it, I need evidence for your claim.
There are multiple possibilities.
You mean modern Jews who are descended from the very school of Judaism which rejected Jesus as both God and the Messiah (the Pharisees)?
Did you know that’s where modern Judaism descends from? The very people for whom you said it was entirely possible that they were mistaken?
They were certain that he was not the Messiah, which is what Christ means (the anointed one).
But humans don’t actually exist. Only God exists. That is how Jews in 1st century understood it hence claiming “I exist” means claiming Divinity.
Yes. And we must be sure other possibilities did not happen.
No. In that link, author rejects the claim to be the God.
I did not mean “all modern Jews”. Of course some Jews think that the Messiah is the God, but not all of them
.I’ll try get it to read.
???
Do you have evidence for it?
As I said primary evidence is that “I exist” is very off topic there. I mean it doesn’t even make sense in that topic. Our Lord has also said “before Abraham was, I AM” which can not be about existence if He was born when He was born. At the same time, He did not say “before Abraham was, I was” or “I have been” but “I am” which is clear claim of Divinity. That said…
It has been shown to you more than once and by more than one person that your quoted statement is not true, because the two phrases you list are the same statement in different languages. Why do you persist in stating it?
he’s standing there, why would he be referring to himself as existing when everyone can see that he is existing? Do you think the author wants Jesus to look stupid?
Same meaning, two different languages.
if the Jews had made a mistake and didn’t understand what Jesus was talking about why didn’t Jesus correct them? Makes Jesus look like an incompetent teacher. When ever someone didn’t understand what Jesus was teaching he would explain what he meant. That is clear in scripture so why would Jesus not explain now? Misleading people is an evil act. Do you believe Jesus was being evil here?
YHWH means “I am”? I really didn’t know that. Problem seems to been sloved.
You are right.
No, Lord Jesus is not evil. He is son of God.
Words fail me. I would go through the thread and list the times that it was explicitly stated, but I just don’t have the energy.