G
gazelam
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Threads addressing the LDS view of Early Christian apostasy inevitably result in one or more references to Matthew 28:20 as scriptural proof that the early Church could not fail. The verse states:
teaching them to observe all that I have commanded you. And behold, I am with you always, until the end of the age.
“age” in this verse comes from the greek word “aion”, which can mean at times either
a) for ever, perpetuity of time, eternity
b) the worlds, universe
c) period of time, age.
(For more info see here: blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?t=KJV&strongs=g165
Those who claim that in Matthew 28:20 “aion” means “forever” or “eternity” run into a logic problem because neither “forever” nor “eternity” have an end. The phrase “the end of forever” simple does not make logical sense because forever does not end. Therefore “aion” in this case must refer to a finite period of time which fits the logic of the sentence.
Note that Matthew 13:39,40 (see below) twice uses the phrase “the end of the age”. In both cases were “aion” interpreted to mean eternity the verse would not be logical because the harvest would never occur.
Matthew 13:39,40 state:
*and the enemy who sows them is the devil. The harvest is the end of the age, and the harvesters are angels. Just as weeds are collected and burned [up] with fire, so will it be at the end of the age. *
The interlinear website showing the translation of Matthew 28:20 from Greek to be “completion of the age” in place of “end of the age”, which clearly indicates a finite period of time. See biblehub.com/interlinear/matthew/28-20.htm
The interlinear website shows the same translation from Greek for Matthew 13:39,40. See biblehub.com/interlinear/matthew/13-39.htm and biblehub.com/interlinear/matthew/13-40.htm
What is your reasoning to support the traditional interpretation of Matthew 28:20 that Christ would never ever abandon the early Church no matter what? Or, do you also support this interpretation that Christ will support the early Church for a finite period of time?
teaching them to observe all that I have commanded you. And behold, I am with you always, until the end of the age.
“age” in this verse comes from the greek word “aion”, which can mean at times either
a) for ever, perpetuity of time, eternity
b) the worlds, universe
c) period of time, age.
(For more info see here: blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?t=KJV&strongs=g165
Those who claim that in Matthew 28:20 “aion” means “forever” or “eternity” run into a logic problem because neither “forever” nor “eternity” have an end. The phrase “the end of forever” simple does not make logical sense because forever does not end. Therefore “aion” in this case must refer to a finite period of time which fits the logic of the sentence.
Note that Matthew 13:39,40 (see below) twice uses the phrase “the end of the age”. In both cases were “aion” interpreted to mean eternity the verse would not be logical because the harvest would never occur.
Matthew 13:39,40 state:
*and the enemy who sows them is the devil. The harvest is the end of the age, and the harvesters are angels. Just as weeds are collected and burned [up] with fire, so will it be at the end of the age. *
The interlinear website showing the translation of Matthew 28:20 from Greek to be “completion of the age” in place of “end of the age”, which clearly indicates a finite period of time. See biblehub.com/interlinear/matthew/28-20.htm
The interlinear website shows the same translation from Greek for Matthew 13:39,40. See biblehub.com/interlinear/matthew/13-39.htm and biblehub.com/interlinear/matthew/13-40.htm
What is your reasoning to support the traditional interpretation of Matthew 28:20 that Christ would never ever abandon the early Church no matter what? Or, do you also support this interpretation that Christ will support the early Church for a finite period of time?