I will simply post this link:
beggarsallreformation.blogspot.co.uk/2010/10/newmans-doctrine-of-development-rests.html regarding doctrinal development.
I think the thread has gone way off Phyllos topic, I will leave with that!
Kind regards
Lincs.
Yes, I hope the OP got what was wanted?
Here is a flaw in that article:
“There is another kind of development, however, which I will call “Development 2.” Development 2 is genuinely new development that is not simply the necessary articulation of what is said explicitly in the Scriptures.”
Doctrinal development has never been restricted to an articulation of what is “explicity in Scripture”. If it were, we would not HAVE the scriptures, since the canon itself is a doctrinal development. The Scriptures contain no explicit list of books that should be included in the canon. On the contrary, if these things were explicity stated in Scripture, doctrinal development would not be necessary! Scripture was never intended to be a full compendium of the faith.
Classic examples of Development 2 would include the differences between the doctrine of the theotokos and the dogmas of the immaculate conception or the assumption of the Blessed Virgin Mary. In the former, Marian dogma is not actually saying something about Mary, but rather something about Christ. If Jesus Christ is truly God, and Mary is his mother, then Mary is truly the Mother of God (theotokos). She gives birth, however, to Jesus’ humanity, not his eternal person, which has always existed and is generated eternally by the Father. The doctrine of the theotokos is a necessary implication of the incarnation of God in Christ, which is clearly taught in the New Testament.
If it were clear, it would not have required a dogma. Those of us who have accepted the doctrinal development find it clear, but it is because we approach the scriptures through the lens of that faith (Sacred Tradition). Others who were reading the scriptures interpreted them differently, just as they do today. It is clear in reading about the Arian and Gnostic heresies that they used the scriptures to prove their positions as well.
However, the dogmas of the immaculate conception and the assumption are not taught in Scripture, either implicitly or explicitly. They are entirely new developments.
This is a false conclusion, based upon a false premise.
The same would be true, of course, for the doctrine of the papacy. The New Testament says much about the role of Simon Peter as a leader of the apostles. It does not say anything explicit, however, about the bishop of Rome being the successor to Peter.
Since the bishops, the successors to the Apostles, predated the New Testament, why would anyone expect their existence to be dependent upon it?
The Eastern fathers, e.g., Cyprian, interpret the Petrine passages that Rome has applied to the papacy as applying to all bishops.
Yes, all bishops are successors to the Apostles. Peter had certain gifts and responsibilities that the others did not, but all the apostolic lines of succession from Apostles are valid in the same way. Antioch has a line of consecrated Bishops from Peter that is older than Rome.