R
rcwitness
Guest
That’s the claim of many tribunal cases, yes.
I am not judging anyone, but that seems strange to me. Certainly they weren’t all forced! I believe you, of course.That’s the claim of many tribunal cases, yes.
I cannot get this one to quote @constantlearner , sorry @rcwitness.But there are persons who go through a valid Catholic marriage, by a priest, in a church, and still get an annulment. It seems the church might as well allow divorce under some conditions since it does grant annulments to those it considers validly married.
In other words, like most relationships. SighOr a million other things that can impact consent.
I didn’t know if it could. That’s why I asked. So what makes a marriage valid? For the RCC, validity seems to be fluid and float from case to case.Where do you get the idea that the Church can find valid marriages null?
Natural marriage is one not between two baptized people which has the necessary minimums:Follow up question: What formality is required to establish a natural marriage? Obviously, sex alone is not enough, but what form do the vows have to take for a natural marriage to be formed?
Given the Church’s stance on “marriage is forever” I would think the above would be the norm. But it doesn’t seem to be. At least not among the Catholics I know and have known, and I went to a Catholic college. Well, one was a Catholic college, one was Hebrew.“For the canonist the principle must remain clear that only incapacity and not difficulty in giving consent and in realizing a true community of life and love invalidates a marriage,” said Pope John Paul in 1987. “ Only the most severe forms of psychopathology impair substantially the freedom of the individual ,” he said the following year, as he called upon defenders of the bond to prevent “ tensions and difficulties, inevitably involved in the choice and achievement of the ideals of marriage, from being confused with the signs of a serious pathology .”
Not a specific doctrine but more of a common sense answer – right and wrong use of sex.But I do trust the Church. Do you, or anyone reading this, have a definitive source of doctrine you could point me to which directly states that what I’m saying here is wrong, that sex wouldn’t make two virgins married?
Thanks again
“abandoned” yes, but how is it dissolved?Therefore even though sex with prostitutes is mentioned in the Bible, that is an example of its wrong usage because the becoming one flesh is quickly abandoned
That’s the ideal, yet many who marry don’t believe it must, or that anything holds the marriage accountable.unlike in a marriage where it is to last until death to either one of the spouse
Man and woman, joined by God, will not constitute a sacrilege.
15 Know you not that your bodies are the members of Christ? Shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of an harlot? God forbid.
16 Or know you not, that he who is joined to a harlot, is made one body? For they shall be, saith he, two in one flesh.
17 But he who is joined to the Lord, is one spirit.
18 Fly fornication. Every sin that a man doth, is without the body; but he that committeth fornication, sinneth against his own body.
19 Or know you not, that your members are the temple of the Holy Ghost, who is in you, whom you have from God; and you are not your own?
20 For you are bought with a great price. Glorify and bear God in your body.