I would appreciate very much your detailing the Jews “partial guilt or complicity in historical persecutions” of Jews. Please give examples - what the Jews did to cause the persecution - what was the reaction and whether you feel the persecution of the Jews in that situation was justified.
I would appreciate the same thing from the history you presented, that was my point. I was wondering why you edit history in that way.
But before I start jumping through hoops in an attempt to prove something to you that you could easily learn for yourself, I must ask, are you taking the stand that Jews are entirely innocent in every conflict ever involving Jews either individually or corporately? You seem to blame Hitler’s reviving of “the ghettoes” while ignoring the “Golden Liberty” given to the Jews by Catholic Poland at the request of the Jews.
And you ignore the fact that Hitler’s idea of the “Master Race” is directly linked to counter the idea of “Chosen People”. Only Judaism has ever claimed a biological “exclusivity” that sets it apart from the rest of the world. That is until, Nazism stole the concept.
My original point is that in your posts, there is no mention of any negative actions on the part of Jews ever in any conflict that they were ever involved in. Why is that? Where do you learn your history?
It is my position from basic observation and experience both of mass media trends and firsthand experience that Italians, Irish, Greeks, Germans, Spanish, Russians etc. can and do all admit the existence of unsavory members within their respective nationalities. They fully admit the existence of mafia and criminal elements, immoral trends and cultural affectations and the lamentable moments in history that their ancestors and contemporaries participated in as well as the laudable and noble contributions of each culture to the development of civilization.
Do you believe there is (like the other nationalities mentioned) a 'tribal" mentality that has been handed downover the centuries in the Jewish community? If not, why not? And if so, why is the public self-criticism not apparent on any comparable scale?
It would be an interesting study to find out if this cultural quality which is only shared by the Muslims was actually lifted by the Muslims from the Jews.