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Geremia
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Can a Catholic man who has had an annulment receive Holy Orders? What if the annulment was doubtful or granted imprudently; could that also invalidate his reception of Holy Orders? Thanks
If a decree of nullity is granted, it is granted.Can a Catholic man who has had an annulment receive Holy Orders? What if the annulment was doubtful or granted imprudently; could that also invalidate his reception of Holy Orders? Thanks
I’ve wondered about this, and this seems as good a place as any to ask, while hopefully relevant to the topic, but can a decree of nullity be issued in error? Can bribery or corruption affect the awkwardly stated validity of the nullity?If a decree of nullity is granted, it is granted.
Since being married alone won’t prevent the ordination from occurring, and since clerical celibacy is assumed, I’d image that if the marriage were still valid do to an erroneous declaration of nullity (if that is possible), the priest would at least not run afoul committing adultery.Also marriage is not an impediment to Holy Orders.
If you had evidence for that, I think you would be morally bound to present it to the tribunal. And, yes, I do think annulment decisions could be overturned; am I right?I’ve wondered about this, and this seems as good a place as any to ask, while hopefully relevant to the topic, but can a decree of nullity be issued in error? Can bribery or corruption affect the awkwardly stated validity of the nullity?
This is correct.And, yes, I do think annulment decisions could be overturned; am I right?
if it was doubtful that is why there is an appeals process. If it passed through that process, it could still have been appealed to Rome. If if was finally granted who has doubts? certainly not the Church. If there were doubts on the part of someone in a position to know all the facts, why has not that person come forward during the annulment investigation?Can a Catholic man who has had an annulment receive Holy Orders? What if the annulment was doubtful or granted imprudently; could that also invalidate his reception of Holy Orders? Thanks
Br. David,If a decree of nullity is granted, it is granted.
Also marriage is not an impediment to Holy Orders.
The “impediment” of marriage would make the ordination illegal (illicit), however the sacrament of holy orders would still be validly conferred.Br. David,
It would be more helpful if you supplied the end of that last sentence: “. . . in the Eastern churches.” Marriage is, after all, an impediment in the Latin Church.
Can. 1042 The following are simply impeded from receiving orders:
1/ a man who has a wife, unless he is legitimately destined to the permanent diaconate;
It is a simple impediment, which means that it affects licitity, not validity (which was what the OP was asking).Br. David,
It would be more helpful if you supplied the end of that last sentence: “. . . in the Eastern churches.” Marriage is, after all, an impediment in the Latin Church.
Can. 1042 The following are simply impeded from receiving orders:
1/ a man who has a wife, unless he is legitimately destined to the permanent diaconate;
Note the last words “permanent diaconate”. Br. David’s statement is factually correct in the Western Church as well, since a permanent deacon does receive holy orders.Br. David,
It would be more helpful if you supplied the end of that last sentence: “. . . in the Eastern churches.” Marriage is, after all, an impediment in the Latin Church.
Can. 1042 The following are simply impeded from receiving orders:
1/ a man who has a wife, unless he is legitimately destined to the permanent diaconate;
This is a discipline and can, and has, been dispensed from.Br. David,
It would be more helpful if you supplied the end of that last sentence: “. . . in the Eastern churches.” Marriage is, after all, an impediment in the Latin Church.
Can. 1042 The following are simply impeded from receiving orders:
1/ a man who has a wife, unless he is legitimately destined to the permanent diaconate;
Wow, it really does say that. Suppose a priest’s annulment could be reversed, could that shed doubt on whether transubstantiation at the masses he has celebrated actually occurred?Can. 1643 Cases concerning the status of persons, including cases concerning the separation of spouses, never become res iudicata.
No, all it would mean is that the priest is married. He would still be a validly Ordained priest.Wow, it really does say that. Suppose a priest’s annulment could be reversed, could that shed doubt on whether transubstantiation at the masses he has celebrated actually occurred?
No it cannot. A married man can definitely receive Holy Orders. Celibacy is not a pre-requisite to receiving Holy Orders.Can a Catholic man who has had an annulment receive Holy Orders? What if the annulment was doubtful or granted imprudently; could that also invalidate his reception of Holy Orders? Thanks
A priest cannot be dismissed from the clerical state just because his annulment was overturned. Come to think of it, all these should appear on his Sacramental record. If the person willfully concealed any information, then yes that will be the grounds for his dismissal. He will still be a priest, albeit a laicized one.I’ve wondered about this, and this seems as good a place as any to ask, while hopefully relevant to the topic, but can a decree of nullity be issued in error? Can bribery or corruption affect the awkwardly stated validity of the nullity?
Since being married alone won’t prevent the ordination from occurring, and since clerical celibacy is assumed, I’d image that if the marriage were still valid do to an erroneous declaration of nullity (if that is possible), the priest would at least not run afoul committing adultery.
The wife, however, would be in a difficult position, and if the annulment were overturned (again if such a procedure exists), then the priest might be dismissed from the clerical state. However, his ordination would remain, but he’d be forbidden from celebrating the sacraments except in the case of emergency.
mostly speculation on my part though![]()
Its a legal (canonical) impediment, but it does not affect the validity of the Holy Orders. Protestant Ministers who receive an indult to continue as priests never received valid Orders as Protestant Ministers. But they are still ordained validly into eh Roman Catholic priesthood.Br. David,
It would be more helpful if you supplied the end of that last sentence: “. . . in the Eastern churches.” Marriage is, after all, an impediment in the Latin Church.
Can. 1042 The following are simply impeded from receiving orders:
1/ a man who has a wife, unless he is legitimately destined to the permanent diaconate;
He is a valid priest. Marriage does not invalidate Holy Orders Therefore all Sacraments are valid granting he has the necessary faculties and/or good standing with the Church all these time.Wow, it really does say that. Suppose a priest’s annulment could be reversed, could that shed doubt on whether transubstantiation at the masses he has celebrated actually occurred?
Yes, of course. Br. David’s statement was just false on its face. I’m not saying he was trying to misrepresent the case, because he likely meant it was not a diriment impediment (which category does not exist for orders); I simply don’t like letting things like that hang in the wind.It is a simple impediment, which means that it affects licitity, not validity (which was what the OP was asking).
The man in question would have been validly ordained. The ontological change to his soul would have occurred.
And yet despite the exception for permanent deacons, it remains the case that marriage is an impediment to orders. Like I said, it’s not a diriment impediment, but to unqualifiedly assert that marriage is not an impediment to orders is to make a statement that is unqualifiedly false.Note the last words “permanent diaconate”. Br. David’s statement is factually correct in the Western Church as well, since a permanent deacon does receive holy orders.