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Friar_David_O.Carm
Guest
When I used the word “impediment” I meant something that would invalidate the sacrament, such as a divorced man who has not received an anullment would be have an impediment to another marriage.Yes, of course. Br. David’s statement was just false on its face. I’m not saying he was trying to misrepresent the case, because he likely meant it was not a diriment impediment (which category does not exist for orders); I simply don’t like letting things like that hang in the wind.
Marriage does not invalidate the Sacrament of Holy Orders, plain and simple. Even in the Latin Church as there are many married priests who were converts.
It is a discipline and only effects legality (licity) and not validity.
So what I said was not “just false on its face”. You just did not understand and I was not as clear as I could have been.