Jesus was not sent by the god of this world, the creator god, but He was the manifestation of the Unknown God
Theophilus of Antioch 180-AD. Speaks of "the Trinity of God [the Father], His Word and His Wisdom (To Autolycus II.15).
Ebionites are not a mystery. There is no consensus among scholars, do you have their early writtings from 70-150?
The connection of Christ to God the Father is more than significant.
Marcion was an excommunicated heretic. And your opinion of how the Doctrine of the Trinity came to be is just that, a lacking opinion. In his heretical belief the God of the Jews and Jesus Christ were completely different deitys. A dualist system of belief is all Marcion bought the table and much later than your projected 100-AD. More likely 144-AD. Born in 85-AD which also makes him a little late to the table.
SO… at 15-years old he did all this work, A little far fetched no???
For you have to consider the work of Ignatius of Antioch by 104.
I would even go so far as to say that “New Testament” Scripture has no value at all if taken by itself, but by virtue of it as an expression of Catholicism it then has value. The only problem with this is that the original version of letters of St Paul had nothing to do with Catholicism. Nor was St Paul the actual author of the letters either, …
Of couse all this in you “opinion”, based on what for facts? While your “opinion” is appreciated its short sighted
Seven letters of St Paul are considered as “undisputed”, which scholars all argee on and they are… Romans, 1 & 2 Corinthians, Galatians, Philippians, 1 Thessalonians, and Philemon. How would logic coincide to the fact they have nothing to do with Christianity as you state? Perhaps I am missing your logic here? Romans itself cannot be understated or Corinthians as to your assumption?
Actually the first one to make a canon of scripture was Marcion (about 100 AD). And Marcion’s canon was one of the primary reasons that his Church became so popular.
At the age of 15? I don’t think so. False assumption’s based on no facts. Irenaeus of Lyon, mentions all of the books except Jude, 2 Peter, James, Philemon, 2 and 3 John, and Revelation. The earliest “New Testament manuscripts” were written on papyrus, a practice continued for centuries. Fragments exist of Luke, John, Matthew, Mark, and Acts, aside form all the works of St Paul I mentioned above, and I believe a couple others. John is the oldest known work of the NT and dates 125-160. All Pauls works are dated about 175. Revelations shortly after. Marcion
John on the Trinity? Most significant I would say. BTW Ignatius was his student
St. John’s testimony is yet more explicit than that of the Synoptists. He expressly asserts that the very purpose of his Gospel is to establish the Divinity of Jesus Christ (John 20:31). In the prologue he identifies Him with the Word, the only-begotten of the Father, Who from all eternity exists with God, Who is God (John 1:1-18). The immanence of the Son in the Father and of the Father in the Son is declared in Christ’s words to St. Philip: “Do you not believe, that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me?” (14:10), and in other passages no less explicit (14:7; 16:15; 17:21). The oneness of Their power and Their action is affirmed: “Whatever he [the Father] does, the Son also does in like manner” (5:19, cf. 10:38); and to the Son no less than to the Father belongs the Divine attribute of conferring life on whom He will (5:21). In 10:29, Christ expressly teaches His unity of essence with the Father: “That which my Father hath given me, is greater than all . . . I and the Father are one.” The words, “That which my Father hath given me,” can, having regard to the context, have no other meaning than the Divine Name, possessed in its fullness by the Son as by the Father.
Now Jesus used the phrase “I AM” 8 times, Mark 14:62, Luke 22:70, John 4:26, 8:58, 13:19, 18:5,6,8. God often uses “I AM” as a name or description of Himself in the Old Testament as we well know. The significance of the Holy Spirit should be obvious throughout OT/NT. So here you see the connection of God of the OT and Jesus Christ being God born of the Flesh. And the Word became Flesh by the power or who? The Holy Spirit…no?
The dead sea scrolls OT/NT 150-BC to 50-AD. You’ll probly want to read this also since new evidence is found here…
Scroll 4Q246 - the Son of God Scroll: “Cave Four”.
“He shall be called the son of God,
and they shall designate [call] him son of the Most High.
Like the appearance of comets, so shall be their kingdom.
For brief years they shall reign over the earth and shall trample on all;
one people shall trample on another and
one province on another until the people of God shall rise and all shall rest from the sword.”
Compare the words in Luke 1:32 and 35: “He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David… And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God” (Luke 1:32-35).
google “Extraordinary Evidence About Jesus in the Dead Sea Scrolls”
Didache which is the teachings of the twelve apostles dates from 50-AD to the early first century. Here God is called “Lord God”, while Jesus is called “the servant” of the Father.
And of couse the works of St Ignatius of Antioch exist from 104-AD in his 7-letters. So as to your above post with Marcion? Basically Ignatius of Antioch alone puts that to rest just in itself